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I am aware this is a pretty big topic, but the attempts at layman's explanations I have seen either barely provide commentary on the formal proofs, or fail to provide an explanation (e.g "it gets too complex" does not really say anything)

Is there a good intuitive explanation as to why we fail to obtain a general solution for a 5th+ degree polynomial, and why this happens at the 5th degree and not below or above?

Layman
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    To say the truth, such formulas exists and are *all* more or less well known. Simply they are obviously transcendental (you can not obtain them only by using $n$-th roots) and involve the use of methods from the general theory of hypergeometric functions, a classical topic in "hard" analysis. – Daniele Tampieri Sep 06 '19 at 17:47
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    @DanieleTampieri: They are obviously not transcendental, just not expressible using the four algebraic operations and radicals. – Moishe Kohan Sep 06 '19 at 17:57
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    I do not think there is an explanation (even a heuristic one) of Abel–Ruffini theorem which avoids some group theory. The moral of the story is that there are many mathematical results which can be formulated in layman's language but whose proof (even a sketch) cannot be. – Moishe Kohan Sep 06 '19 at 18:04
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    Then a good layman's explanation would start with how and why the proof itself is impossible to simplify unlike its consequence. I still do not buy it though, surely no proof is so incremental that it is impossible to simplify the intuition behind it – Layman Sep 06 '19 at 19:34
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    There are solutions to all non constant polynomial equations by FTA. Just that beyond the fourth degree we cannot express the general solution in a certain form. When one thinks deeply enough about it, one sees that this constraint is really very unwarranted, like the belief of the Pythagoreans that rational numbers were enough to describe all things (which of course turned out to be false). – Allawonder Sep 06 '19 at 22:02
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    I suggest you read this detailed sketch of Arnold's proof of Abel-Ruffini theorem: https://web.williams.edu/Mathematics/lg5/394/ArnoldQuintic.pdf. It is intended for a layman who can handle some basic group theory (and a bit of topology). It still takes about 5 pages. – Moishe Kohan Sep 09 '19 at 19:30
  • Just did a skim. Seems like exactly what I needed, cheers! – Layman Sep 09 '19 at 20:58
  • See this question. – Jair Taylor Sep 28 '19 at 19:46

4 Answers4

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See this detailed sketch of Arnold's proof of Abel-Ruffini theorem here: web.williams.edu/Mathematics/lg5/394/ArnoldQuintic.pdf. It is intended for a layman who can handle some basic group theory (and a bit of topology). It still takes about 5 pages.

Moishe Kohan
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Responding to Dmitry Ezhov's comment above: the "finite combination" is necessary, since with an infinite number of operations one can solve an arbitrary quintic. For example, consider $x^5 - x - 1$. Galois theory tells us the roots of this cannot be expressed in terms of a finite combination of radicals and field operations, but using infinitely many it's not too bad: if $x^5 - x - 1 = 0$, then $x^5 = x+1$, so $x = \sqrt[5]{1+x}$. Plugging this back into itself and iterating yields a solution $x = \sqrt[5]{1+\sqrt[5]{1+\cdots}}$ to the original quintic.

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Formula for roots of equation $\displaystyle z^m-az^n-1=0$ with definite integration:

$\displaystyle z_j=e^{2j\pi i/m}+\frac{1}{2\pi i}\left(e^{(2j+1)\pi i/m}\int_0^\infty log\left(1+a\frac{t^n}{1+t^m}e^{(2j+1)\pi in/m}\right)dt \\- e^{(2j-1)\pi i/m}\int_0^\infty log\left(1+a\frac{t^n}{1+t^m}e^{(2j-1)\pi in/m}\right)dt\right)$

where natural $m>n>0$, $j=0,1,...m-1$ and $a$ is natural.

Based on paper Лахтинъ, “Выраженiе корней трехчленнаго алгебраическаго уравненiя посредствомъ опредѣленныхъ интеграловъ” (1890).

Example calculation in pari/gp:

 a= 7;
 m= 5; n= 2;
 print("Quintic: z^5-"a"*z^2-1=0\n");
 print("Galois group: "polgalois('z^5-a*'z^2-1)"\n");
 print("Ordinary solution:\n"polroots('z^5-a*'z^2-1)"\n");
 print("Not-ordinary solution:");
 Z= [];
 for(j=0, 4,
  z= exp(2*j*Pi*I/m) + 1/(2*Pi*I)
   *(exp((2*j+1)*Pi*I/m)*intnum(t=0, oo, log(1+a*t^n/(1+t^m)*exp((2*j+1)*Pi*I*n/m)))
   - exp((2*j-1)*Pi*I/m)*intnum(t=0, oo, log(1+a*t^n/(1+t^m)*exp((2*j-1)*Pi*I*n/m))));
  Z= concat(Z, [z])
 );
 print(Z)

Output:

Quintic: z^5-7*z^2-1=0

Galois group: [120, -1, 1, "S5"]

Ordinary solution:
[1.9369100453804415363610723955778268241 + 0.E-38*I,
 0.0014571193250340581699295533533713515578 - 0.37793919029580108279238966671308590927*I,
 0.0014571193250340581699295533533713515578 + 0.37793919029580108279238966671308590927*I,
 -0.96991214201525482635046575114228476362 - 1.6351464511815856113226711169592030156*I,
 -0.96991214201525482635046575114228476362 + 1.6351464511815856113226711169592030156*I]~

Not-ordinary solution:
[1.9369100453804415363610723955778268026 + 0.E-39*I,
 0.0014571193250034346617831783697118620865 + 0.37793919029582726259430943508563428674*I,
 -0.96991214201522420284231937615862526337 + 1.6351464511815594315207513485866546421*I,
 -0.96991214201522420284231937615862526336 - 1.6351464511815594315207513485866546421*I,
 0.0014571193250034346617831783697118620703 - 0.37793919029582726259430943508563428672*I]
Dmitry Ezhov
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There is intutive explanation given here through Galois Theory

you have to take Galois group of the equation, the group of automorphisms of the splitting field of the polynomial. For polynomial of any degree $n$. By defination of Automorphism, it maps root of a equation to the other root, it is a subgroup $G$ of the $S_n$ (symmetric group).

Galois Theory assigns, to each polynomial, a mathematical structure called a group. A polynomial is solvable in radicals (that is, you can write down its roots in terms of its coefficients, the 4 arithmetical operations, and square roots, cube roots, etc.) if and only if the corresponding group is a "solvable" group. The definition of solvable group won't mean much to you if you haven't done a course in group theory; there should be a sequence of groups, starting with the trivial group and ending with the group corresponding to the polynomial, such that each group in the sequence is a "normal" subgroup of the next group, and the "quotient" of each group by the previous group is "commutative". But for $n\ge 5$, and of course, not abelian. Hence $S_n$, which is the Galois group is not solvable.

IamKnull
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    In what way is this an intuitive layman’s explanation? – mrf Sep 07 '19 at 07:49
  • @mrf I know this is not simple for those who have not studied group theory. But if someone has studied group theory, they know not very heavy machinery is used in this proof. – IamKnull Sep 07 '19 at 07:58