Why we don't need Axiom of Choice to prove the following statement
Let $S_{\alpha}, \alpha \in A$ be a family of disjoint nonempty sets, and consider $P = \bigcup_{\alpha \in A} S_{\alpha}$. If $|A|$ is finite then there exists $Q \subset P$ such that for each $\alpha \in A$, we have $|Q \cap S_{\alpha}| = 1$
with this as the proof (taken from https://math.stackexchange.com/a/29383/)
Since each of the $S_\alpha$'s are nonempty, then by definition for each $\alpha$ there exits $b_{\alpha} \in S_{\alpha}$. So $Q = \{b_{\alpha} | \alpha \in A \}$ works.
But apparently we do need Axiom of Choice to prove the exact same hypothesis with just the hypothesis ``$|A|$ is finite" removed.
Can someone provide some intuition on why the proof won't work for infinite $A$ ?