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Suppose $f$ is a real valued function defined on $\mathbb{R}$ which satisfies $$\lim_{h\to 0} [f(x + h) − f(x − h)] = 0$$ $\forall x \in \mathbb{R}$. Does this imply that $f$ is continuous in $\mathbb{R}$?

A possible answer can be $f(x)=c, c\neq 0$ $\forall$ $x\in \mathbb{R}\setminus \{0\}$ and $f(0)=0$ as mentioned here.

Can anyone point me out what happens when we consider at $x=h$?

Arnaud D.
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Mathejunior
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    What do mean by "consider at $x = h$"? What exactly are you confused about? – balddraz Aug 25 '19 at 21:34
  • @0XLR so like, if we consider it at $x=h$, then the limit would be $\lim_{h \to 0} (f(2h)-f(0)) = c\neq 0$ – Mathejunior Aug 25 '19 at 21:37
  • are you saying $h$ is fixed or the dummy variable for the limit ? – J. W. Tanner Aug 25 '19 at 21:40
  • @J.W.Tanner The dummy variable – Mathejunior Aug 25 '19 at 21:42
  • $x$ is supposed to be a fixed number, and $h$ is a dummy variable which you're allowing to tend to $0$ as you take a limit, so it doesn't make sense to put $x=h$. – peek-a-boo Aug 25 '19 at 21:47
  • I can't understand your question either: you first fix a $x \in \mathbb{R}$, then you check if the relation you wrote holds when $h\to 0$. Let $x \neq 0$. Since $h\to 0$, $h$ can't be finally equal to $x$. If $x=0$, then the counterexample which you shared with us answers your question. – bing-nagata-smirnov Aug 25 '19 at 21:51

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Let $g : J \to \mathbb R$ be a function defined on an open interval $J$ containing $0$. Then we write $\lim_{h \to 0} g(h) = a$ if for each $\varepsilon > 0$ there exists $\delta > 0$ such that for all $h \in J$ with $0 < \lvert h \rvert < \delta$ one has $\lvert g(h) - a \lvert < \varepsilon$. Note that $h = 0$ is deliberately excluded here.

If $f : \mathbb R \to \mathbb R$ is a function, we write $\lim_{h \to 0} f(x+h) = a$ if the function $f_x(h) = f(x+h)$ has the property $\lim_{h \to 0} f_x(h) = a$. We say that $f$ is continuous in $x$ if $lim_{h \to 0} f(x+h) = \lim_{h \to 0} f_x(h) = f(x)$.

Now consider the function $f^*_x(h) = f(x+h) - f(x-h)$. Your example shows that if $\lim_{h \to 0} f^*_x(h) = 0$, then $f$ is not necessarily continuous in $x$. We cannot even conclude that $\lim_{h \to 0} f(x+h)$ exists. As an example take $f : \mathbb R \to \mathbb R, f(0) = 0$ and $f(x) = \sin(1/\lvert x \rvert)$ for $x \ne 0$. For $x = 0$ we have $f(h) = f(-h)$, i.e. $f^*_0(h) = 0$ for all $h$.

Paul Frost
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