I came along the following question in my textbook and needed a little help.
I need to find a measurable set $A \subset \mathbb{R}^2$ such that $\dfrac{m(A\cap B(0, h))}{m(B(0, h))} \rightarrow 1/3$ as $h \rightarrow 0.$
Thanks
I came along the following question in my textbook and needed a little help.
I need to find a measurable set $A \subset \mathbb{R}^2$ such that $\dfrac{m(A\cap B(0, h))}{m(B(0, h))} \rightarrow 1/3$ as $h \rightarrow 0.$
Thanks
Take $A$ to be a sector of the unit circle with $1/3$ the area. Then you have a constant ratio of $1/3$ as $h\to 0$.
You should check out Lebesgue's density theorem. That should put you down the right track.