I'm reviewing for the Math GRE Subject test and came across this question in the excellent UCLA notes.
$$\lim_{x\to 0}\left(\frac{1}{x^2}-\frac{1}{\sin^2 x}\right).$$
If one attacks this with naive applications of L'Hospital after combining fractions, it quickly gets out of hand. The suggested solution involves factoring it as
$$\frac{1}{x^2}-\frac{1}{\sin^2 x} = \frac{\sin^2 x - x^2}{x^2\sin^2 x} = \left(\frac{x^2}{\sin^2 x}\right)\left(\frac{\sin x + x}{x}\right)\left(\frac{\sin x - x}{x^{3}}\right),$$
where indeed each factor has a real positive limit. I am wondering: What intuition or thought process might lead me to this particular factorization? Such a factorization seems non-obvious to me as it requires the introduction of another factor of $x^2$ into the numerator.
Edit: Thanks to everyone's clear responses, I now understand:
Taylor expansions of trig functions are immensely powerful in evaluating limits, in this case turning the problem into a limit of a rational function.
If a factor of a limit exists and is nonzero, it can be factored out without affecting convergence of the product. Formally, suppose $\lim f(x)$ exists and $g(x)$ is a factor of $f(x)$. Then if $\lim g(x)$ exists in $\mathbb{R}\backslash\{0\}$, $\lim f(x)/g(x)$ exists also. That is to say, one can be "opportunistic" about simplifying ones limits if a factor with a real nonzero limit is discovered.
Evaluate $\lim_{x \to 0} \left( {\frac{1}{x^2}} - {\frac{1} {\sin^2 x} }\right)$,
Find the limit without use of L'Hôpital or Taylor series: $\lim \limits_{x\rightarrow 0} \left(\frac{1}{x^2}-\frac{1}{\sin^2 x}\right)$ and ...
– Martin Sleziak Aug 22 '19 at 05:27