Addition (For further context, see the answer below).
Suppose that $p$ is a prime such that:
- $p = 2^i + 2^j + 2^k + 1, i > j > k > 0$,
- $p$ is $4$-super Weiferich: $2^{p-1} \equiv 1 \bmod p^4$.
Note that it is widely expected that there are infinitely many primes satisfying 1. OTOH, it is also widely expected that there are no primes at all satisfying 2 (rough heuristic, the chance of it happening for each random prime is $1/p^3$ which converges, are there are no such primes less than $10^{17}$ so no tiny accidents occur). So we don't expect there to exist primes satisfying both 1or 2 either. However, it seems very hard to rule out their existence using standard techniques from number theory.
Now take the semi-direct product
$$H = (\mathbf{Z}/2)^{4(p-1)} \rtimes \mathbf{Z}/p^4$$
coming from an element of $\mathrm{GL}_{4(p-1)}(\mathbf{F}_2)$ all of whose eigenvalues are primitive $p^4$th roots of unity. Such a matrix exists precisely because of the divisibility (2) above. Suppose that $H$ contained a subgroup of order $4p$. Then it would have to be a semi-direct product of $(\mathbf{Z}/2)^2 \rtimes \mathbf{Z}/p$. Since $p > 3$, this would force the group to be abelian. However, by construction, the action of the element of order $p$ has no fixed points on $(\mathbf{Z}/2)^{4(p-1)}$, and so this is impossible. We now note:
$$(4p)! = 2^{4p - s(4p)} p^4 \cdot M, \ (M,4p) = 1$$
Where $s(n)$ is the number of binary digits of $n$. By assumption (1), $s(4p) = 4$. Hence, letting $G = H \times \mathbf{Z}/M$,
we find that $|G| = (4p)!$ but $G$ has no subgroup of order $4p$.
Conclusion I think the result is most likely true (at least for solvable groups) but impossible
to prove, since the example above seems very difficult to rule out.
Of course, I may have missed a simple genuine counter-example, but my analysis below suggests to me that the result could well be true, at least for $n = p^{\alpha} q^{\beta}$ and $G$ solvable, which is the main case I have thought about.
End Addition.
Another partial answer.
I'm not sure this is a very natural question, and let me explain why. Let's concentrate on the simplest unknown general case, when $n=2p$ and $p$ is prime.
Let's even allow ourself the assumption that $G$ is solvable, so we may reduce to the case (as in YCor's answer) to when
$$|G| = 2^m p^2 \ \text{for} \ m = v_2((2p)!).$$
You could now generalize the question slightly and ask: under what
conditions on $m$ do all groups of order $2^m p^2$ contain a subgroup of order $2p$?
The power of $2$ coming from $n!$ is pretty arbitrary from this perspective. For example, why not ask whether every group of order $2 \cdot n!$ has an element of order $n$. I will show at least that solving the modified problem (if it is true) is beyond the scope of known results in number theory.
Let's see why the answer to which groups of order $2^m p^2$ have a subgroup of order $2p$ depends subtly on $m$. Having established this, note that the particular choice of $m = v_2((2p)!)$ seems a little random. This $m$ can be described more explicitly bu the formula
$$m = v_2((2p)!) = 2p-s(p),$$
where $s(p)$ is the number of digits of $p$ in base binary.
Example: Suppose that $2^m \equiv 1 \bmod p^2$. Then, for any integer $k$, there is a group of order $2^{mk} p^2$ with no subgroup of order $2p$.
Here is the construction. For any $m$, there is an inclusion:
$$\mathrm{GL}_1(\mathbf{F}_{2^m}) = \mathbf{F}^{\times}_{2^m} \subset \mathrm{GL}_m(\mathbf{F}_2)$$
the hypothesis implies that the LHS has an element of order $p^2$, and so its image will be an element $g$ all of whose eigenvalues have order $p^2$. Take the group $G$ to be the semi-direct product of a cyclic group of order $p^2$ acting on $(\mathbf{F}^m_{2})^k$ via $g$ on every factor. Then $G$ will have no subgroup of order $2p$, because $g^p$ has no fixed vectors.
That doesn't contradict anything so far, since the smallest $m$ with this property is usually rather big, for example, $m = 6$ for $p = 3$, whereas $6! = 2^4 \cdot 3^2 \cdot 5$.
Similarly, for $p = 5$, $7$, and $11$ we get $m = 20$, $21$, and $110$ respectively, far bigger than $8$, $11$, and $19$. More generally, if $2$ has order $l$ in $(\mathbf{Z}/p)^{\times}$, then $2^{l} \equiv 1 \bmod p$, and $2^{lp} \equiv 1 \bmod p^2$. Usually the order of $2$ modulo $p^2$ will be $m = lp$, which is always bigger than $v((2p)!)=2p-1$. However, there do exist primes for which the order of $2 \bmod p$ is smaller, namely Wieferich primes, for which the order is $l$, not $lp$, e.g.
$$2^{364} \equiv 1 \bmod 1093^2,$$
$$2^{1755} \equiv 1 \bmod 3511^2.$$
To give an indication of the sorry state of our knowledge of Wieferich primes, we currently do not know whether there are finitely many primes which are not Wieferich primes.
This construction doesn't give a counterexample to the problem, because the number $v_2((2p)!)$ is not a multiple of the order of $2 \bmod p^2$ for either $p = 1093$ or $p = 3511$. In fact, it turns out that $v_2((2p)!)$ can never be divisible by the order of $2$ mod $p^2$, Wieferich prime or not. To see this, note that the order of $2$ for Wieferich primes divides $2(p-1)$. So it it also divides $v_2((2p)!)$, it must divide $s(p) - 2$. There are two cases:
$p$ is not a Fermat prime. Here $s(p) > 2$, but certainly $p > 2^{s(p)} - 1$, which makes $p$ too big for even $p$ to divide $2^{s(p)-2}-1$, let alone $p^2$.
$p$ is a Fermat prime. We can't prove that all but finitely many primes are Wieferich, and we can't prove that there aren't infinitely many Fermat primes, but we can prove that Fermat primes are not Wieferich, because
$$2^{2^k} \equiv -1 \bmod p = 2^{2^k} + 1,$$
$$2^{2^{k+1}} \equiv 1 \bmod p = 2^{2^k} + 1,$$
but
$$2^{2^{k+1}} - 1 = (p-2)p$$
is not divisible by $p^2$.
So this doesn't lead to a direct counter example. But it says:
If you ask whether all groups of order $2 \cdot n!$ have a subgroup of order $n$, it is beyond curent methods to prove the answer is true even for $n=2p$ with $p$ prime.
The point is one would have to rue out the existence of Wiefrich primes of the form $p = 2^i + 2^j + 1$. Wiefrich primes give groups of order $2^{2(p-1)} p^2$ with no subgroup of order $2p$, and $2(2p)! = 2^{2(p-1)} p^2$ times an integer coprime to $2p$ in this case when $s(p) = 3$.
In the positive direction, it might even be possible to answer the solvable case of order $2p$. To do this, one might try to give a positive answer to the following question:
Question: Suppose that $G$ is a group of order $2^n p^2$ and $2^n \not\equiv 1 \bmod p^2$.
Then does there exist a subgroup of order $2p$?
Possibly you might disagree, but this seems like a more natural question.
I will now prove that the smallest possible counter-example to the question has order $2^m$ with $m$ greater than than the order of $2 \bmod p^2$. This proves the $2p$ case of the solvable version of the conjecture for $p < 10^{17}$ except possibly $p = 1093$ and $p = 3511$ (the only Weiferich primes in this range).
Claim: Let $G$ be a group of order $2^n p^2$ for some odd prime $p$. Suppose that $n$ is smaller than the order of $2 \bmod p^2$. Then $G$ has a subgroup of order $2p$.
Possibly one can modify this claim to answer the question above. I started to write up a proof of a stronger (but false!) claim that this was true for all $n$ then stopped when the proof stopped, so it is not written optimally for trying to answer the question above (for example, there is repeated use of induction to groups with smaller $2$-power order.)
Proof: Suppose that $n = 1$. Then the $p$-Sylow $P$ will be normal, and the group
will be a semi-direct product of $P$ by an element of order $2$.
If $P$ is cyclic, then the element of order $2$ certainly fixes a subgroup of $P$ of order $p$,
and the corresponding extension has order $2p$.
If $P = (\mathbf{Z}/p)^2$, then any order $2$ element acting on $P$ will be diagonalizable and so also fix a subgroup of order $p$.
Now proceed by induction on $n$, so we may assume that $n > 1$. Let $Q$ be a $2$-Sylow, and consider the action of $Q$ on all $p$-Sylows $X$ of $G$. If $P \in X$ has a non-trivial stabilizer, then it is stabilized by an element $x$ of order $2$, and the group generated by $P$ and $x$ has order $2p^2$, and one is reduced to the case $n = 1$ and one is done by induction.
Hence we may assume that every $P$ has no stabilizer. But the action is transitive by the Sylow theorems, so $|X| = |Q|$.
Suppose that $P$ and $P'$ are two distinct $p$-Sylows which have a non-trivial intersection. Let $N$ denote the normalizer of $P \cap P'$. Certainly $N$ contains $P$ and $P'$ (because they have order $p^2$ and so are abelian) and so $N$ has order $2^m p^2$ for some $m > 0$. If $m < n$, then we are done by induction. If $m = n$, then $P \cap P'$ is normal in $G$. But in this case $G/(P \cap P')$ contains an element of order $2$, and the inverse image in $G$ is a subgroup of order $2p$.
Thus we may assume all $p$-Sylow subgroups are distinct and there are $|Q|$ of them, and hence the number of elements of non-trivial $p$-power order is
$$|Q|(p^2 - 1) = |G| - |Q|.$$
But that implies that the $2$-Sylow subgroup $Q$ is normal, because there are only $|Q|$ elements of possible $2$-power order. Hence $G$ is a semi-direct product. Certainly the center $Z$ of $Q$ is characteristic, and so the action of $P$ preserves $Z$, and hence $G$ contains the semi-direct product of $P$ by $Z$. Similarly, we can replace $Z$ by the subgroup of $Z$ of elements of order $2$, and so we may assume that $Q = (\mathbf{Z}/2)^n$. (Thus the semi-direct product corresponds to a map:
$$P \rightarrow \mathrm{GL}_n(\mathbf{F}_2).$$
Suppose that $P$ is not cyclic. Let $V$ denote the representation on the RHS.
Clearly $V \otimes \overline{\mathbf{F}}_2$ is a representation of $P$.
Any irreducible representation of a non-cyclic group has kernel, so this extension contains invariants under a degree $p$ subgroup $H$ of $P$, and hence:
$$(V \otimes \overline{\mathbf{F}}_2)^{H} \ne 0.$$
But this implies by flatness that $V^{H} \ne 0$. That is, there is an element $x$ of order $2$ which is centralized by $H$, and then $H$ and $x$ generate a group of order $2p$.
Now suppose that $P$ is cyclic. Then we are done unless every representation on the extension is a sum of faithful irreducible representations. But this can only happen if the matrix group has an element of order $p^2$. The eigenalues are defined over fields of degree at most $n$, and thus we are OK unless $n \ge [\mathbf{F}_2(\zeta_{p^2}),\mathbf{F}_2]$ which is equal to the order of $2$ modulo $p^2$.
Bonus! I originally read the question as asking whether any group of order $n!$ necessarily has a subgroup of index $n$. This is false! A pure thought counterexample is
$$A_7 \times \mathrm{Aut}(M_{12})$$
where $M_{12}$ is the Mathieu group. (There are smaller counterexamples but this is the first one I thought of.)