Our teacher gave us this question but I am very stuck. I drew graphs to see why it cant be true but I didnt find anything. I see that if $p$ existed then: $$p(\cdots p(a))=a,\;p(\cdots p(b))=b,\;p(\cdots p(c))=c$$
(With $3n$ $p$'s). But I don't know where the contradiction is... Maybe we can work on the divisibility of the polynomials coefficients or something?