I tried this with a $2 \times 2$ matrix and got the answer zero, is it true for any matrix, or just a coincidence?
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What do you mean by "all possible matrices"? Isn't there only one matrix? – Lincon Ribeiro Aug 01 '19 at 21:12
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You mean $(n^2)!$, no? – Aphelli Aug 01 '19 at 21:17
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Make sure all relevant information is in the body of the question. – H Huang Aug 01 '19 at 21:47
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Suppose that $A$ is an $n\times n$ matrix with distinct entries in some fixed set $S$ (where $|S|=n^2,\ S\subset \mathbb{C}$), and the $\det(A)>0$. Then by swapping the first and second row of $A$ and naming this matrix $B$, one has $-\det(A)=\det(B)$ (see here). This mapping is a bijection.
So, if we take the sum of all determinants of all $n\times n$ matrices consisting of distinct entries in the set $S$, for every matrix with positive determinant $k$ we also have a matrix with determinant $-k$. The only other matrices are ones with a determinant of zero, but they of course don't contribute to this sum. As such, the sum is indeed zero.

Theo C.
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