Is there any significance to study sequences in $\Bbb R \cup \{-\infty,\infty\}$ that is functions $f : \Bbb N \to \Bbb R \cup \{-\infty,\infty\}$. I mean do we define and study convergence of such sequences? I mean such sequences like $1,\infty,3,1.5,5,2.3,\pi,........$ studied?
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Related: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3102813/is-infty-undefined/3102868#3102868. – Michael Hoppe Jul 29 '19 at 11:44
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The map $(-1,1)\ni x\mapsto \frac{x}{1-\vert x\vert}:=f(x)\in\mathbb{R}$ may bei extended to a bijection $F\colon [-1,1]\to \Bbb R \cup \{-\infty,\infty\}$ by $F(x):=f(x)$ for $-1<x<1$ and $F(\pm1):=\pm\infty$. Then, when defining a distance on $\Bbb R \cup \{-\infty,\infty\}$ by $d(u,v):=\vert F^{-1}(u)-F^{-1}(v)\vert$, you make $\Bbb R \cup \{-\infty,\infty\}$ a metric space. And your sequences how are nothing else but sequences in a (special) metric space.

Jens Schwaiger
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Sure. Take the topology as the order topology, and say that a sequence $\{ x_n \}$ converges to $L$ if, given any open set $O$ containing $L$, there is a suitably large $N$ such that
$$x_n \in O$$
for all
$$n > N$$
.

The_Sympathizer
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