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This is a soft question.

As I understand it, Borel's lemma implies that, given any sequence of real numbers $(a_n)_{n\geq 0}$, the formal power series

$$ \sum_{n\geq 0} a_nx^n $$

is the Taylor expansion at the origin of some smooth function $f:\mathbb{R}\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$.

Apply this with a sufficiently fast-growing sequence $a_n$ such that the radius of convergence of the series is zero, for example $a_n = n!$, yielding some smooth function $f$ with $(d^nf/dx^n)_{x=0} = n!^2$.

I am having trouble understanding $f$. Evidently, it cannot be analytic. Fine, there are many smooth functions that are not analytic. But the main examples of such in my mind (e.g. $e^{-1/x^2}$ at $x=0$) are locally approximated by analytic functions, in the sense that at any given point there is an analytic function with the same power series expansion. The $f$ in question is smooth but is not locally approximated by an analytic function (at $x=0$, the relevant point) in this sense.

What does $f$'s too-fast-growing Taylor expansion force it to look like around $x=0$?

Apologies again that this is a soft question. Something is bothering me, and I'm not exactly sure what type of information would resolve the dissonance. (That said, I could imagine a complete/precise answer consisting of pointing out to me something important I am missing.)

Remark: Another framework for what's going on. Borel's lemma asserts that the map $C^\infty(\mathbb{R})\rightarrow \mathbb{R}[[x]]$ sending a smooth function to its Taylor expansion at $0$ is surjective. In fact, this map is well-defined on the ring $C_{x=0}^\infty(\mathbb{R})$ of germs of smooth functions at $x=0$, and $C_{x=0}^\infty(\mathbb{R})\rightarrow \mathbb{R}[[x]]$ is surjective by Borel's lemma. Now we can restrict this map to the germs of analytic functions, each defined on some (arbitrarily small) neighborhood of $x=0$. Then, the above reasoning is saying it stops being surjective (although the image is evidently still dense since germs of even just polynomials map to polynomials in $\mathbb{R}[[x]]$, and these are dense). What do the functions representing smooth germs that are not analytic germs look like? (Note that the answer here is not what I'm looking for. In that question, the key point was that an analytic germ may not extend to a global analytic function [and therefore you can't construct the whole ring of analytic germs by beginning with the global analytic functions]. Here I am interested in the smooth germs that do not come from analytic germs at all.)

  • Construct a smooth function $g$ with the same Taylor expansion at $0$ then $f-g$ is smooth and all its derivatives vanish at $0$, ie. $f-g = o(x^k)$ for all $k$. – reuns Jul 25 '19 at 19:45
  • @reuns - I am not sure how that is relevant? It seems to me such a $g$ will be mysterious exactly in the way $f$ is mysterious. – Ben Blum-Smith Jul 26 '19 at 12:23
  • Not really, you can construct such a $g$ – reuns Jul 26 '19 at 17:16
  • @reuns - That is the very lemma I am using to construct $f$ in the first place. I see no difference between my $f$ and your $g$. That said, it is a soft question, so I apologize that what I am asking for is not more clear. – Ben Blum-Smith Jul 26 '19 at 21:55
  • What do you mean with "I see no difference between $f$ and $g$" ? $g$ is a canonical representative of the smooths functions whose Taylor series at $0$ is the same as $f$'s, this set is very large and it is characterized by : $h$ is smooth and $\forall k, f-h = o(x^k)$ as $x \to 0$ – reuns Jul 26 '19 at 21:59
  • $f$ was constructed in the OP by a call to Borel's lemma, same as you constructed $g$. They may well be the same function. – Ben Blum-Smith Jul 26 '19 at 22:02
  • (I do not see that the construction is canonical as it involves e.g. a choice of bump function, can you clarify the canonical claim? That might help me.) – Ben Blum-Smith Jul 26 '19 at 22:03
  • What do you want more ? Canonical in the sense that there is deterministic algorithm generating some $g$ from any Taylor series. Are you really asking to construct all the smooth functions whose Taylor series at $0$ is identically $0$ ? It is not very different to constructing all the smooth functions. – reuns Jul 26 '19 at 22:07
  • Perhaps I am misreading the proof of Borel's lemma in the link, but it appears to involve the choice of a bump function, so the construction is not deterministic. What am I missing? – Ben Blum-Smith Jul 26 '19 at 22:08
  • Fix a bump function. Also note the smooth functions on $\Bbb{R/Z}$ whose all derivatives vanish at $0$ are isomorphic (through $\tan \pi x$) to the Schwartz space and the Hermite functions makes it isomorphic to the set of rapidly decreasing sequences, thus we can generate all the smooth functions on $\Bbb{R/Z}$ with prescribed Taylor series at $0$. – reuns Jul 26 '19 at 22:31

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