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Open immersions are equivalent to local diffeomorphisms, and immersions are equivalent to local embeddings, so obviously yes. I would like to understand why open local embeddings equivalent to local diffeomorphisms without using immersions as equivalent to local embeddings.

  1. This is how I understand local embeddings and local diffeomorphisms, and why I think open local embeddings equivalent to local diffeomorphisms. Is this correct?

    • Local diffeomorphism:

    For $X$ and $Y$ smooth manifolds with dimensions. A function $f:X\to Y$, is a local diffeomorphism, if for each point x in X, there exists an open set $U$ containing $x$, such that $f(U)$ is open in $Y$ and $f|_{U}:U\to f(U)$, is a diffeomorphism.

    • Local embedding:

    For $X$ and $Y$ smooth manifolds with dimensions. A function $f:X\to Y$, is a local embedding, if for each point x in X, there exists an open set $U$ containing $x$, such that $f(U)$ is a regular submanifold of $Y$ and $f|_{U}:U\to f(U)$, is a diffeomorphism.

    The only difference then is the codimension of $f(U)$ in both definitions. The codimension of (each) $f(U)$ is zero if and only if (each) $f(U)$ is open if and only if $f(X)$ is open if and only if $f$ is an open map.

  2. This definition of local diffeomorphism as stated is wrong, if not some different definition, as talked about here because the definition is missing any of the 4 following equivalent conditions: $\dim N = \dim M$, $F$ is an open map, $F(N)$ is an open subset of $M$, or each $F(U)$ is open (Mindlack may have an issue with the last one! Haha). Yesterday I thought it could be a different definition, but then I realized that tangent spaces aren't introduced until 2 sections later, so I think this is indeed a mistake and not a different definition. (This is not exactly a problem in the book because whenever local diffeomorphisms are involved, we usually have an assumption of $\dim N = \dim M$.)

My question 2 initially was: What is the definition as stated a definition of then?

Initially, I thought it could define local embedding (equivalent to immersion, introduced 2 sections later; embedding is introduced 5 sections later) or local diffeomorphism onto image. After some thought, shown in the edits here, I change question 2 now:

My question 2 now is: Is the following correct?

  • 2A. The definition as stated does not define local embedding, local diffeomorphism onto image or local diffeomorphism.

  • 2B. (2A) is because the definition as stated does not describe the manifold structure of each of the $F(U)$'s.

  • 2C. If each of the $F(U)$'s is open, then the definition is of local diffeomorphism.

  • 2D. If each of the $F(U)$'s is open in $F(N)$, then the definition is of local diffeomorphism onto image, where $F(N)$ turns out to be a submanifold of $M$ (submanifold is not defined until 3 sections later) by this, which relies on this.

  • 2E. If each of the $F(U)$'s is a submanifold of $M$ then the definition is of local embedding.

1 Answers1

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  1. Okay for $f(U)$ has codimension $0$ iff it is open, not okay for the rest (given one $U$, you can’t know all of $f(X)$ being open if you only know $f(U)$ open).

A valid argument is that if $f$ is an open local embedding, then all the $f(U_x)$ for every $x$, are open, thus fulfilling the definition of diffeomorphism.

Conversely, if $f$ is a local diffeomorphism, then $f$ is a local embedding. Furthermore, if $V \subset X$, is an open subset of $X$, then for all $x \in V$, $f(V \subset U_x)$ is an open subset of $f(U_x)$ (thus of $Y$) containing $f(x)$, thus $f(V)$ is a neighborhood of $f(x)$. So $f(V)$ is open and $f$ is open. Therefore $f$ is an open local embedding.

  1. I don’t understand your point. The idea of basic manifold theory is that we have a formalism that does not depend on dimensions or coordinates. The definition you are quoting (in the second link) is entirely correct. It does require $f(U)$ being open, of course.
Aphelli
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  • Thanks! 1. "given one $U$, you can’t know all of $f(X)$ being open if you only know $f(U)$ open", I meant each of the $U$'s... –  Jul 24 '19 at 10:42
  • Is this definition, as stated, which indeed does NOT mention anything explicitly about $F(U)$ open, $F(N)$ open, $\dim N = \dim M$ or $F$ open map, equivalent or NOT equivalent to what you understand is the definition of local diffeomorphism? Thinking about the relationships between the various smooth maps in my questions of the past week, I'm more and more convinced that Tu has a different definition of local diffeomorphism instead of that Tu mistakenly forgot to put $\dim N = \dim M$. This is evidenced by...
  • –  Jul 24 '19 at 10:45
  • ... his inverse function theorem (both 6.26 and 8.12) having an additional assumption of same dimension. –  Jul 24 '19 at 10:45
  • I also noticed in Momentum Maps and Hamiltonian Reduction by Juan-Pablo Ortega, Tudor Ratiu (the book I referred to in my other question you commented on) that their definition of local diffeomorphism $F$ is that (at least how I understand it. i could be wrong) $F$ is both an immersion and submersion. –  Jul 24 '19 at 10:47
  • Thus, I suspect Tu's definition of "local diffeomorphism" is actually equivalent either to local embedding or to local diffeomorphism onto image. I understand the chain goes $$\text{local diffeomorphism} \implies \text{local diffeomorphism onto image} \implies \text{immersion} \iff \text{local embedding}$$ –  Jul 24 '19 at 11:02
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    For your first comment, note that “each of the open subsets has an open image” and “each of the $U_x$ has an open image” is not the same. It is the same (with a couple of lines) provided that $f: U_x \rightarrow f(U_x)$ is always a homeomorphism. For the inverse mapping theorem: the “same dimension” assumption seems to be just to be able to compute determinants. If you phrase it in terms of an invertible derivative, that necessity vanishes. – Aphelli Jul 24 '19 at 11:17
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    For your second comment, my apologies, I had not noticed the definition in the first link. You indeed need $F(U)$ to be open, or it does not make any sense. – Aphelli Jul 24 '19 at 11:19
  • Question 1: Ugh, okay, thanks. Question 2: No need for apologies. Right, I know that as stated the definition for local diffeomorphism doesn't make sense. That's what I asked about here. My new question is what the definition as stated could possibly define. I initially... –  Jul 25 '19 at 05:01
  • ...thought the as stated definition could possibly define local diffeomorphism onto image or local embedding, but now I think it doesn't define anything since we don't know in what way, if at all, $F(U)$ is a manifold. I updated the post with some thoughts. Are my thoughts correct please? –  Jul 25 '19 at 05:01