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Since there is no definite answer to this question here but many good tips, I tried to compute $E(e^x)$ myselfe and this is what I got: $$ E(e^X)=\displaystyle{\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^x \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}\sigma}e^{-\frac{(x-\mu)^2}{2\sigma^2}}}dx = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}\sigma}\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^x e^{-\frac{(x-\mu)^2}{2\sigma^2}}dx = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}\sigma}\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{x-\frac{(x-\mu)^2}{2\sigma^2}}dx = $$

$$ = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}\sigma}\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{\frac{2x\sigma^2-(x-\mu)^2}{2\sigma^2}}dx = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}\sigma}\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{\frac{2x\sigma^2-(x^2-2x\mu+\mu^2)}{2\sigma^2}}dx = \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}\sigma}\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{\frac{-(x^2-2x(\sigma^2+\mu)+\mu^2)}{2\sigma^2}}dx $$

$$ \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}\sigma}\int_{-\infty}^\infty e^{\frac{-(x-(\sigma^2+\mu))^2+2\sigma^2\mu+\sigma^4}{2\sigma^2}}dx =e^{{\frac{2\sigma^2\mu+\sigma^4}{2\sigma^2}}} \int_{-\infty}^\infty \frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}\sigma} e^{\frac{-(x-(\sigma^2+\mu))^2}{2\sigma^2}}dx = e^{\mu}e^{\frac{\sigma^2}{2}} $$

Is this ok? But does this also prove that $E(|e^X|)$ is finite? If not, how can I show that?

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    You could have easily checked, say, https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Normal_distribution to see that the MGF is $e^{\mu t + \sigma^2 t^2/2}$ which at $t=1$ gives this result. Your procedure of completing the square is also correct. As for $E[|e^X|]$ you have that $e^X=|e^X|$ for real $X$... – Ian Jul 22 '19 at 17:17
  • Thank you Ian, somehow I missed that $|e^X|=e^X$ for real $X$. How can I show this or is there any proof maybe here allready? – KingDingeling Jul 22 '19 at 17:19
  • @KingDingeling $e^x>0$ for $x\in\mathbb{R}$ is common knowledge. Depending on your definition, this might come directly from it, and if not, I'm sure there's proof somewhere around here. But it's odd for you to study probability, yet ask such elementary questions. – Jakobian Jul 22 '19 at 17:20
  • Yes but $e^{-2}\neq e^2$. Somehow I think that this is really stupid but wow am I stuck... Ah, my mistake is that I think that $|e^x|=e^{|x|}$. It's not. – KingDingeling Jul 22 '19 at 17:22
  • @Jakobian has been a looooong day but you are right. – KingDingeling Jul 22 '19 at 17:26

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