You toss a coin repeatedly and independently. The probability to get a head is $p$, tail is $1-p$. Let $A_k$ be the following event: $k$ or more consecutive heads occur amongst the tosses numbered $2^k,...,2^{k+1}-1$. Prove that $\mathbb P\left(A_k\hspace{1mm} \text i.\text o.\right)=1$ if $\displaystyle p\geq \frac{1}{2}$, $0$ otherwise.
I'd appreciate any help with this one! edit: Assuming this has to do with Borel-Cantelli, specifically a "$0/1$ law".
We know that if $\{A_n:n\geq 1\}$ is a sequence of independent events in a probability space, then either $\mathbb P\left(A\left(\text i.\text o.\right)\right)=0$, which is the $\mathbb E\left(N\right)<\infty$ case, or $\mathbb P\left(A\left(\text i.\text o.\right)\right)=1$, which is the $\mathbb E\left(N\right)=\infty$ case, where $N$ denotes the total number of $A_n$ to occur;
$\displaystyle N=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}I_n$, where $I_n=I\{A_n\}$ denote the indicator rv for the event $A_n$.
$\displaystyle \mathbb{E}(N) = \sum_{k=1}^\infty \mathbb{P}(A_k)$, so we have to show that this sum converges for $\displaystyle p< \frac{1}{2}$, and diverges otherwise. (how?)