I have been searching around for a proof (that I can understand) that the cardinality of the irrationals equals $\mathfrak{c},$ the cardinality of the reals. (This, of course, is different than showing that the cardinality of the irrationals is uncountable.)
Based on the post I have cited in the title:
Does $k+\aleph_0=\mathfrak{c}$ imply $k=\mathfrak{c}$ without the Axiom of Choice?
would I be correct in arguing that the cardinality of the irrationals must be $\mathfrak{c}$; for otherwise, if $k$ were greater than $\aleph_0$ (say $I$) but less than $\mathfrak{c}$, then $I + \aleph_0 = \mathfrak{c},$ which would be impossible since that would imply that the sum of two transfinite numbers less than $\mathfrak{c}$ can equal $\mathfrak{c}$?
Also, am I correct in assuming that the theorem cited by the aforementioned post is indeed a published result that does not rely on the Axiom of Choice?
Thank you.