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Let $f:\mathbb{C}\to\mathbb{C}$ be an analytic function. Show that $g(z)=\overline{f(\overline{z})}$ is analytic and find its derivative.

$f$ is analytic then C-R equations hold. Suppose $f=u+iv$.

Then $g(z)=u(x,-y)+i(-v(x,-y))$. We can observe that C-R equations hold for $g$ as well since if we set $\hat{u}(x,y):=u(x,-y)$ and $\hat{v}(x,y)=-v(x,-y)$ we get $$ \hat{u}_x=u_x=-v_y=-\hat{v}_y \\-\hat{u}_y=u_y=v_x=-v_x $$ But this is not enough for to show that $g$ is analytic.

J. Doe
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If $f(z) = \sum\limits_{k=0}^{\infty} a_nz^{n}$ then $g(z)=\sum\limits_{k=0}^{\infty} \overline {a}_n z^{n}$. You can differentiate the series for $g$ term by term.

$g'$ is obtained from $f'$ the same way $g$ is obatined from $f$.

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    Why did you not post this to one of the duplicate targets? Finding them is not that difficult, and it is sort of a civic duty here. I cannot believe that a trusted user would not think that this question has NOT been handled earlier! – Jyrki Lahtonen Jul 12 '19 at 15:56