Does this integral actually have a value? I just wanted to check it's well-defined, since exponentiation gets complex when dealing with negative and complex numbers, as seen in post 1 and post 2.
WolframAlpha evaluates it as:
$$ \int ^{1}_{0}{(-1)^x}dx = \frac{2i}{\pi} $$
I was thinking of the steps to verify the calculation. I started with the possibilities:
$$ -1 = e^{\pm i \pi} = e^{\pm 3i \pi x} = e^{\pm 5i \pi x} = \cdots $$
Then I limited to the principal value $-1 = e^{i \pi}$.
Considering $x >0$, we have:
$$ (-1)^x = e^{i \pi x} $$
From here, we can evaluate the integral of $e^u$ for $u=i \pi x$, and we get the same answer of $2i/\pi$ as WolframAlpha.
Are there any other missing assumptions or landmines to this integral being solvable?
Or is WolframAlpha's evaluation more or less correct? (If one takes the principal value of $-1 = e^{i\pi}$.)