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I have tried to read many proofs of this but I'm not sure I get it, so please bare with me.

Show that $\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \sup (a_n+b_n) \leq \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \sup (a_n)+lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \sup (b_n).$

I care about the case when $(a_n + b_n)$ is bounded.

Take an arbitrary subsequence $({a_n}_k + {b_n}_k)$, it must converge to a limit $l$ since $(a_n + b_n)$ is bounded.

Take the subsequences $({{a_n}_k}_j)$ and $({{b_n}_k}_j)$, since $({a_n}_k + {b_n}_k)$ converges to $l$, $({{a_n}_k}_j)$ + $({{b_n}_k}_j)$ must also converge to $l$.

So we have $$\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}({a_n}_k + {b_n}_k)=lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}({{a_n}_k}_j)+\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty}({{b_n}_k}_j) \leq \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \sup (a_n)+\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \sup (b_n)$$ which is true by the definition of supremum. (Is there some intuition here?)

Well, any subsequence $(a_n+b_n)$ that converges is bounded above by $\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \sup (a_n)+\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \sup (b_n) $, so certainly $\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \sup (a_n+b_n)$ is bounded above, or in other words $$\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \sup (a_n+b_n) \leq \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \sup (a_n)+\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \sup (b_n).$$

Questions:

  1. Is this a correct proof?

  2. The inequality seems obvious by itself, because the suprema of two sequences will always be an upper bound of those two sequences added together. The only other thing that can happen is that those suprema are an upper bound for $(a_n+b_n)$, but not the least upper bound - if this is correct, is this a case of 'so easy it's hard' or am I missing an essential piece of the puzzle? None of the proofs I've seen online have made any sense to me, so I'm guessing it's the latter.

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  • The argument is not correct. Take $a_n=(-1)^n$ and $b_n=(-1)^{n+1}$. You have $a_n+b_n=0$ which converges, and yet neither $a_n$ nor $b_n$ converges.
  • – Julien Mar 08 '13 at 20:45
  • This is similar to (1) and (2). – robjohn Mar 08 '13 at 20:47
  • @julien Could I then take another subsequence $({{{b_n}k}_j}_p)$ and construct it so that $({{{b_n}_k}_j}_p) = (a+b){nkj}-(a_{nkj})$? In other words, can I choose my subsequences more carefully to have them converge to $l$? (and does that make the proof correct?) – john.abraham Mar 08 '13 at 21:07
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    No, this can't work. See robjohn's answer. – Julien Mar 08 '13 at 21:16