Suppose that $f:X\to Y$ and $g:Y\to Z$ are functions. If both $f$ and $g$ are one-to-one, then $g\circ f:X\to Z$ is one-to-one.
I believe the converse would be written: Suppose that $f:X\to Y$ and $g:Y\to Z$ are functions. If $g \circ f: X \to Z$ is one-to-one, then both $f$ and $g$ are one-to-one.
I cannot come up with a counterexample and I believe the converse is also true. Any thoughts.