2

Is the proof given in the next section valid?

I've seen the proof of the AM–GM inequality using forward-backward-induction and I'm trusting that the inductive reasoning of my proof can hold up to scrutiny.


Here we insist that all representations are expressed using the familiar capital sigma notation with the lower bound of summation starting at 0. So if we have a representation for a natural number $m$ it is converted and we can write

$$\tag 1 m = \sum_{i=0}^k x_i b^i$$

So for example,

$$ b^{n+1} = \sum_{i=0}^{n+1} x_i b^i \text{ where } x_i = 0 \text{ for } i \le n \text{ and } x_{n+1} = 1$$

When we have a $\text{Base-b}$ representation, $m = \sum_{i=0}^k x_i b^i$ and $x_k \ne 0$, then we say that the representation has a leading coefficient of $x_k$ and if $x_k = 0$ that the representation has padding.

Given two representations, by allowing padding, we can insist that they both have the same upper bound of summation. By uniqueness we mean that any two representations of a number $m$ with the same upper bound of summation have the same coefficients.

For $n \ge 0$ construct the representations

$$ p_{(n,n+1)} = \sum_{i=0}^n (b - 1) b^i$$

Lemma 1: For $n \ge 0$, $\;p_{(n,n+1)} + 1 = b^{n+1}$.
Proof
We use induction.
For $k = 0$, $\;p_{(0,1)} + 1 = (b-1) + 1 = b^{0+1}$ and the base case is true.
Assume $\;p_{(k,k+1)} + 1 = b^{k+1}$. Then

$$ p_{(k+1,k+2)} + 1 = p_{(k,k+1)} + (b-1)b^{k+1} + 1 = b^{k+1} + (b-1)b^{k+1} = b^{k+2} $$

and the proof is complete. $\quad \blacksquare$

If all the coefficients of a representation for $m$ are equal to $b -1$ use padding to get another representation where the coefficient corresponding to the index of the upper bound of summation is $0$. Then by working with the 'carry over' logic found in lemma 1, we can get a representation for $m +1$. If $m$ is represented by $\text{(1)}$, then with $\gamma$ denoting the first index where $x_{\gamma} \lt b - 1$:

$\bullet$ Set $y_\gamma = x_{\gamma} + 1$
$\bullet$ For $i \lt \gamma$ set $y_i = 0$
$\bullet$ For $i \gt \gamma$ set $y_i = x_i$

to form the next representation

$$\tag 2 m + 1 = \sum_{i=0}^k y_i b^i$$

Moreover, it can be shown that if we have two different representation for $m$, these constructions create two different representations for $m + 1$.

Proposition 2: Every natural number has a $\text{Base-b}$ representation.
Proof
We prove this using induction.
For $m = 0$ define $x_0 = 0$ giving $m = \sum_{i=0}^0 x_i b^i$.
If we have a representation for $m$ then construct $m + 1$ using $\text{(2)}$. $\quad \blacksquare$

Lemma 3: The number $m = b^n$ has a unique representation.
Proof
We claim that any other representation has the same coefficients.
Let

$$\tag 3 b^n = \sum_{i=0}^k x_i b^i = \sum_{i=0}^{n-1} x_i b^i + x_n b^n +\sum_{i=n+1}^{k} x_i b^i$$

The rhs can't be greater than $b^n$ and using simple properties of the numbers we can drop the summation (if it is present) with a lower bound of $n + 1$, so we have

$$\tag 3 b^n = \sum_{i=0}^{n-1} x_i b^i + x_n b^n $$

Again, since the rhs can't be greater that $b^n$, $x_n = 0$ or $x_n = 1$

Case 1: $x_n = 0$
Since
$\quad \sum_{i=0}^{n-1} x_i b^i \le p_{(n-1,n)} \lt b^n$ this is not possible.

Case 2: $x_n = 1$
Then
$$\tag 4 b^n = \sum_{i=0}^{n-1} x_i b^i + b^n $$ and again, since the rhs can't be greater than $b_n$, $x_i = 0$ for $i \lt n$.

So the any other representation has $x_n = 1$ and all other coefficients must be equal to $0$. $\quad \blacksquare$

Theorem 4: Every natural number has one and only one representation $\text{Base-b}$ representation.
Proof
The existence is given by proposition 2.
To get a contradiction, let $m$ a natural number with two different representations. The exposition above shows that we can create two different representations for $m + 1$. We can continue doing this until we get two different representation for $b^n$. Applying lemma 3 we get a contradiction.
$\blacksquare$

CopyPasteIt
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    I've read most of the above, with it appearing to be correct except one important thing which I didn't see you explicitly state is, for things like uniqueness, the coefficients must all be between $0$ and $b - 1$, inclusive. As for other proofs of uniqueness, you may wish to read the "Related" (on right side) section post of Prove that there is only one unique base b representation of any natural number.. – John Omielan May 28 '19 at 19:56
  • @JohnOmielan Thanks for taking the time to review. I actually had an answer on that link, but I just deleted it. Here is another proof: https://www.cut-the-knot.org/arithmetic/BaseExpansion.shtml – CopyPasteIt May 29 '19 at 17:05
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    Did you see my proof there which shows that it is an immediate consequence of the Rational Root Test? I think this is one of the nicest ways to view it. – Bill Dubuque May 29 '19 at 17:32
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    @BillDubuque I see it https://math.stackexchange.com/a/2174820/432081 and plan to review it right now, especially since the definition of radix is not any kind of deep number theory concept. $\quad$ radix: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Radix – CopyPasteIt May 29 '19 at 18:03
  • You write "If is represented by (1) , then with denoting the first index...". By first I assume we mean "minimum"? – EE18 Sep 19 '23 at 21:16

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