In Section 9 of Chapter 6, Lang constructrs for the first time a non-abelian extension as a splitting field $K$ of $X^n - a$ when the ground field $k$ does not contain primitive $n$-th roots of unity $\zeta_n$. He constructs an injective homomorphism of the Galois group $G(K/k)$ into the matrices of type
$$ M=\begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 \\ b & d \end{pmatrix} \quad \hbox{with}\ b\in \mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z} \quad \hbox{and} \quad d\in (\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z})^*,$$
where $(\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z})^*$ the multiplicative group of integers modulo n.
Afterwards, he states in Theorem 9.4 that if $n$ is an odd positive integer prime to the characterstic and $[k(\zeta_n):k]=\varphi(n)$ (i.e, the primitive roots of unity are not in the ground field), then the above homomorphism is, in fact, an isomorphism. Besides, the commutator group is $G(K/k(\zeta_n))$, so $k(\zeta_n)$ is the maximal abelian subextension of $K$.
Lang proves the theorem inductively over the number of prime factors in the decomposition of $n$ (i.e. if $n=9= 3\cdot 3$, then the proof "would take two steps" to complete). The induction start with $n$ prime is written clearly and I agree with it.
Now come the questions:
- I do not understand Lang's argument to prove that the commutator subgroup is the subgroup $\begin{pmatrix}1 & 0 \\ b & 1\end{pmatrix}$, $b\in \mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z}$. What is this projection on the diagonal and how does one see that the factor group of the commutator group is isomorphic to $(\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z})^*$?
By the way, direct computation of $x\, y\, x^{-1}\, y^{-1}$ for two arbitrary matrices $x=\begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 \\ b & d \end{pmatrix}$, $y=\begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 \\ c & e \end{pmatrix}$ yields a matrix $\begin{pmatrix} 1 & 0 \\ b(1-e)+c(d-1) & 1 \end{pmatrix}$. As $n$ is odd, $2 \in (\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z})^*$, so taking $e=1$ and $d=2$, we indeed reconstruct the above-mentioned group.
- The second (inductive) part of the proof is a complete mystery to me with virtually every sentence being a Theorem which needs an extra proof. Can someone give me some hints?
2.a. Lang writes $n=p\,m$ and takes $\alpha$ to be the root of $X^n-a$. It is clear that $\beta=\alpha^p$ is a root of $X^m -a$. Now comes the argument "By induction we can apply the theorem to $X^m-a$". I agree that we can apply it here but the result is that $K=k(\beta,\zeta_m)$ is the splitting field of $X^m-a$. In the diagram below, there appears $k(\beta,\zeta_n)$ out of nowhere.
2.b. Now Lang proceeds to apply the theorem on $X^p-\beta$ over $k(\beta)$. Bergman's "Companion" reminds to check that $[k(\beta,\zeta_p):k(\beta)]=\varphi(p)$ before applying the theorem and gives a hint "$[k(\zeta_p):k]$ and $[k(\beta):k]$ are relatively prime". I disagree with this hint. Take $n=21= m p$ where $m=3$ and $p=7$. Then $[k(\zeta_p):k]=\varphi(p)=p-1=6$ but $[k(\beta):k]=m=3$ and both are not co-prime. Can we apply the theorem here at all? Or if so what is the argument? If Bergman's argument is valid, where is the fault in my logic?
2.c. Even assuming that we can apply the theorem in 2.b., then we can say something about $k(\alpha, \zeta_p)$ and not $k(\alpha,\zeta_n)$. How do we proceed to checking everything Lang states in the last section of the proof (basically, everything after the diagram)?
EDIT: I have found the essentially same question here