1

$\newcommand{\scra}{\mathscr{A}}$ $\newcommand{\limm}[2]{\underset{#1\to#2}{\lim}}$ $\newcommand{\pl}{\parallel}$ $\newcommand{\iy}{\infty}$

Let $\mu$ and $\mu_1,\,\mu_2,\cdots$ be finite signed or complex measures on $(X,\,\scra)$. Show that $\limm{n}{\iy}\pl\mu_n-\mu\pl=0$ holds if and only if $\mu_n(A)$ converges to $\mu(A)$ uniformly in $A$ as $n$ approaches infinity.

The proof of "$\Longrightarrow$" is easy. But how to prove the reversed assertion? By definition, $$ |\mu-\mu_n|(X)=\sup\lbrace\sum_{i=1}^{k}\left|(\mu-\mu_n)(A_i)\right|\{A_i\}_{i=1}^k\;\text{is a partition of}\;X\rbrace. $$ The difficulty is that $k$ varies as soon as $n$ does.

Knt
  • 1,649
  • 1
    I don't know how to use the Ullrich hint, nor do I know what a "signed or complex" measure is. However, if you let $m(\cdot)$ be the real part of such a measure then I suspect you have the property that if $A_1, ..., A_k$ are disjoint and measurable then $$m(\cup_{i=1}^kA_i) = \sum_{i=1}^k m(A_i) \quad (Fact1)$$ Now you can break the sum $\sum_{i=1}^k |m(A_i)-m_n(A_i)|$ into a sum over indices $i$ for which $m(A_i)\geq m_n(A_i)$, and the opposite, which allows you to remove the absolute values. Then use Fact 1 on the separate sums. This basically turns the unbounded $k$ into $2$. – Michael May 17 '19 at 17:31
  • So likely you could use this method on the real part. Then on the imaginary part. If this comment helps, perhaps you can do me a favor and let me know the axioms and applications for a "complex measure." I am only familiar with real-valued and nonnegative measures. – Michael May 17 '19 at 17:42

2 Answers2

1

Hint:

Prop If $\mu$ is a complex measure on $X$ then there exists $E\subset X$ with $|\mu(E)|\ge ||\mu||/\pi$.

Getting $|\mu(E)|\ge||\mu||/c$ for $c>\pi$ is trivial from Lemma 6.3 in Rudin, which says

Lemma If $z_1,\dots z_n\in\Bbb C$ there exists $S\subset\{1,\dots,n\}$ with $\left|\sum_{j\in S}z_j\right|\ge \frac 1\pi\sum_{j=1}^n|z_j|$.

It's not so clear how to get the Prop as stated from the lemma. But one can simply adapt the proof of the lemma:

Proof of the Prop, cribbed from 6.3 in Rudin:

There exist a finite positive measure $\nu$ and a real-valued function $\phi$ such that $$d\mu=e^{i\phi}d\nu.$$For $\theta\in\Bbb R$ let $$E(\theta)=\{x\in X:\cos(\phi(x)-\theta)\ge0\}$$and define $$F(\theta)=|\mu(E(\theta))|.$$Note that $$F(\theta)=\left|\int_{E(\theta)}e^{-i\theta}d\mu\right|\ge\Re \int_{E(\theta)}e^{i(\phi-\theta)}d\nu=\int_X\cos^+(\phi(x)-\theta)\,d\nu(x).$$ Hence $F$ is continuous, so it has a maximum $F(\theta_0)$. And Fubini shows that $$F(\theta_0)\ge\frac1{2\pi}\int_0^{2\pi}F(\theta)\,d\theta =\frac1{2\pi}\int_X\int_0^{2\pi}\cos^+(\phi(x)-\theta)\,d\theta d\nu(x)=\frac1\pi\int_Xd\nu=\frac1\pi||\mu||.$$

QED.

And $1/\pi$ is best possible:

Define a complex Borel measure $\mu$ on $[-\pi/2,\pi/2)$ by $$\mu(E)=\int_Ee^{it}\,dt,$$so $||\mu||=2\pi$. It's not hard to show that $|\mu(E)|\le 2$ for every $E$.

  • I have +1'd this answer in view of the Danny answer that suggests that the subtraction of two (complex) measures is also a measure. Yet, it seems nobody will care enough to tell me the use of (or axioms for) complex measures as I ask in comments above. I suspect that complex measures are a bit of a distraction for this problem and the same result could have been illuminated by asking the question with respect to ordinary (real-valued and nonnegative) measures. – Michael May 17 '19 at 22:16
  • A minor issue is that I would agree on existence of $E$ that gets $|\mu(E)|\geq (||\mu||/4)\rho$ for any $\rho$ that satisfies $0<\rho<1$, though the case $\rho=1$ (perhaps true) seems to be more involved to prove, at least it is not obvious to me... – Michael May 17 '19 at 22:19
  • @Michael I didn't think about the lemma carefully; maybe $1/4$ is wrong, the exact constant doesn't matter. You can find the definition of "complex measure" in more or less any book on real analysis. Or see https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Complex_measure – David C. Ullrich May 17 '19 at 22:25
  • Oh, I see from the link that the main application is likely integration over $\mathbb{C}$. I was wondering because the structure of $\mathbb{C}$ only seems useful if you do multiplications (else we may as well just take a vector of measures), and I didn't think of a reason why you would ever multiply $\mu(A)\mu(B)$. But for integration it makes sense I guess to multiply a "small" "$d\mu(A)$" by some complex function. – Michael May 17 '19 at 22:29
  • @Michael I think it's fair to say that the reason people consider complex measures is the Riesz Representation Theorem. – David C. Ullrich May 17 '19 at 22:33
  • @Michael Not that it matters, but yes, $4$ works, – David C. Ullrich May 18 '19 at 15:04
  • Thanks for letting me know, that $1/\pi$ fact is very interesting! Of course the corresponding question is "but does it work for $1/\pi$"? =) – Michael May 18 '19 at 15:11
  • @Michael I don't know for sure, but it seems very likely to me. – David C. Ullrich May 18 '19 at 15:24
  • 2
    Here is also a proof of the lemma (with the claim that the factor $\frac 1\pi$ is optimal if $n$ is not restricted). – Martin R May 18 '19 at 15:43
  • @MartinR The "claim" that $1/\pi$ is optimal follows from a very simple example. – David C. Ullrich May 18 '19 at 16:14
  • @Michael Yes, $1/\pi$ works. – David C. Ullrich May 19 '19 at 15:48
  • Thanks. That we can get arbitrarily close to pi indeed comes from the Rudin lemma together with getting arbitrarily close to the sup definition of norm. So achieving seems to relate to “if there is an infinite sequence of sets that get close, does that mean...” I do follow your nice proof on the other page that pi is best possible. Yet I can’t follow your new addition today. I didn’t know how to follow the start where a phi function is claimed with certain differential properties, or meaning of an inequality bigger than real numbers(??). Perhaps tomorrow I will feel smart enough to get it. – Michael May 19 '19 at 22:15
  • @Michael Well, the other day you were asking about the definition of complex measures... Start by reading chapter 6 in Rudin. (The fact that $d\mu=e^{i\phi}d\nu$ is a standard consequence of Radon-Nikodym; btw there's nothing "differential" there, the notation just means that $\mu(E)=\int_Ee^{i\phi}d\nu$, hence $\int f ,d\mu=\int f e^{i\phi},d\nu$.) – David C. Ullrich May 19 '19 at 22:38
  • @Michael I don't know what you mean by "inequality bigger than real numbers" - which inequality bothers you? – David C. Ullrich May 19 '19 at 22:40
  • @Michael Oh, I bet you're asking about $\left|\int_{E(\theta)}e^{-i\theta}d\mu\right|\ge\Re \int_{E(\theta)}e^{i(\phi-\theta)}d\nu$. First, $\Re z$ is the real part of $z$. Second, note that $\int e^{-i\theta},d\mu=\int e^{i(\phi-\theta)},d\nu$. Finally, $|z|\ge\Re z$ for all $z\in\Bbb C$. – David C. Ullrich May 19 '19 at 22:45
  • My browser showed it as having the $\Re$ on its own line so the inequality looked like $$expression \geq \Re$$ which looked like it was saying something was greater than or equal to the real numbers. – Michael May 20 '19 at 16:44
1

Lemma: Let $(X,\mathcal{M})$ be a measurable space. Let $\mu$ be a complex measure on $(X,\mathcal{M})$, then there exists $E\subseteq X$ such that $||\mu||\leq8|\mu(E)|$.

Proof: If $||\mu||=0$, we are done. Suppose that $||\mu||>0$. For $\varepsilon=\frac{1}{2}||\mu||>0$, there exists a partition $X=\cup_{j=1}^{n}E_{j}$, where $E_{j}\in\mathcal{M}$ such that $||\mu||-\varepsilon<\sum_{j=1}^{n}|\mu(E_{j})|$. For each $j$, write $\mu(E_{j})=\alpha_{j}+i\beta_{j}$, where $\alpha_{j},\beta_{j}\in\mathbb{R}$. Define subsets $I_{1},I_{2},I_{3},I_{4}$ of $\{1,\ldots,n\}$ by $I_{1}=\{j\mid\alpha_{j}\geq0\}$, $I_{2}=\{j\mid\alpha_{j}<0\}$, $I_{3}=\{j\mid\beta_{j}\geq0\}$, and $I_{4}=\{j\mid\beta_{j}<0\}$. Note that $I_{1}\cap I_{2}=I_{3}\cap I_{4}=\emptyset$. Further write $\alpha_{j}=\alpha_{j}^{+}-\alpha_{j}^{-}$, $\beta_{j}=\beta_{j}^{+}-\beta_{j}^{-}$, where for any $x\in\mathbb{R}$, $x^{+}=\max(x,0)$ and $x^{-}=\max(-x,0)$. Let $s_{1}=\sum_{j=1}^{n}\alpha_{j}^{+}$, $s_{2}=\sum_{j=1}^{n}\alpha_{j}^{-}$, $s_{3}=\sum_{j=1}^{n}\beta_{j}^{+}$, and $s_{4}=\sum_{j=1}^{n}\beta_{j}^{-}$.

Observe that \begin{eqnarray*} & & \sum_{j=1}^{n}|\mu(E_{j})|\\ & = & \sum_{j=1}^{n}|(\alpha_{j}^{+}-\alpha_{j}^{-})+i(\beta_{j}^{+}-\beta_{j}^{-})|\\ & \leq & \sum_{j=1}^{n}\alpha_{j}^{+}+\alpha_{j}^{-}+\beta_{j}^{+}+\beta_{j}^{-}\\ & = & s_{1}+s_{2}+s_{3}+s_{4}\\ & \leq & 4\max(s_{1},s_{2},s_{3},s_{4}). \end{eqnarray*} Consider the case that $s_{1}=\max(s_{1},s_{2},s_{3},s_{4})$. Define $E=\cup_{j\in I_{1}}E_{j}$, then \begin{eqnarray*} |\mu(E)| & = & |\sum_{j\in I_{1}}\mu(E_{j})|\\ & = & |s_{1}+i\gamma_{1}|\\ & \geq & s_{1}\\ & = & \max(s_{1},s_{2},s_{3},s_{4}), \end{eqnarray*} for some $\gamma_{1}\in\mathbb{R}$ (which is not important).

If $s_{2}=\max(s_{1},s_{2},s_{3},s_{4})$, we define $E=\cup_{j\in I_{2}}E_{j}$, then $|\mu(E)|=|-s_{2}+i\gamma_{2}|\geq s_{2}=\max(s_{1},s_{2},s_{3},s_{4})$.

If $s_{3}=\max(s_{1},s_{2},s_{3},s_{4})$, we define $E=\cup_{j\in I_{3}}E_{j}$, then $|\mu(E)|=|\gamma_{3}+is_{3}|\geq s_{3}=\max(s_{1},s_{2},s_{3},s_{4})$.

If $s_{4}=\max(s_{1},s_{2},s_{3},s_{4})$, we define $E=\cup_{j\in I_{4}}E_{j}$, then $|\mu(E)|=|\gamma_{4}-is_{4}|\geq s_{4}=\max(s_{1},s_{2},s_{3},s_{4}).$

Hence, we obtain \begin{eqnarray*} & & \frac{1}{2}||\mu||\\ & = & ||\mu||-\varepsilon\\ & < & \sum_{j=1}^{n}|\mu(E_{j})|\\ & \leq & 4\max(s_{1},s_{2},s_{3},s_{4})\\ & \leq & 4|\mu(E)|. \end{eqnarray*} That is, $||\mu||\leq8|\mu(E)|$.

/////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////////

Now, we go back to the original question. Suppose that $\mu_{n}$ and $\mu$ are complex measures. For each $n$, define $\nu_{n}=\mu_{n}-\mu$. Then $\nu_{n}(A)\rightarrow0$ uniformly on $A\in\mathcal{M}$, in the sense that: For any $\varepsilon>0$, there exists $N$ such that $|\nu_{n}(A)|<\varepsilon$ whenever $n\geq N$ and $A\in\mathcal{M}$.

Let $\varepsilon>0$ be given. Choose $N$ such that $|\nu_{n}(A)|<\varepsilon/8$ whenever $n\geq N$ and $A\in\mathcal{M}$. For each $n$, choose $E_{n}\in\mathcal{M}$ such that $||\nu_{n}||\leq8|\nu_{n}(E_{n})|$. Now, for any $n\geq N$, we have \begin{eqnarray*} & & ||\nu_{n}||\\ & \leq & 8|\nu_{n}(E_{n})|\\ & < & 8\cdot\frac{\varepsilon}{8}\\ & = & \varepsilon. \end{eqnarray*} Therefore $||\nu_{n}||\rightarrow0$.

  • Well, this proof seems essentially the same as my first comment. Under the assumption that the subtraction of two (complex) measures is also a (complex) measure then the original Ullrich hint makes sense (though I agree $1/8$ is a better/easier statement than $1/4$). I usually don't +1 full answers to homework questions (there seems nothing left for the asker to do) but I have +1'd your answer. I guess one could argue that my original comment didn't leave much more for the asker to do. – Michael May 17 '19 at 22:22
  • Very clear, thanks. – Knt May 18 '19 at 04:06