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I had seen this proof at many places, but everywhere sylows theorem is used.

So is their any way to solve it without using sylows theorem?

Rkb
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  • And what is wrong with using Sylow theorems? Yes, there is a way to do to that without them. Write all possible groups manually. You can even write a program that does this for you. – freakish May 17 '19 at 09:27
  • @freakish i am a beginner student in group theory , so i don't know sylows theorem. And how it's even possible to write down all the group of order 15(are you joking). And i don't know programming. – Rkb May 17 '19 at 09:36
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    It's actually not too difficult to write down all possible groups, I don't think @freakish was joking. You have to be a bit systematic though. Maybe start with low orders to see how it works (2, 3, 4, 6, 8...). It could start like this: "Suppose $G$ has order $15$. If it has an element of order $15$ then it is the cyclic group. Otherwise let $x \neq 1$; the possible orders of $x$ are $3$ and $5$. If it's $3$ then..." and see how it goes. – Najib Idrissi May 17 '19 at 09:48
  • Or use Cauchy's theorem which is a very baby Sylow here. So there are elements $x,y$ of orders $3,5$ respectively. Every element of $G$ can be written as $x^iy^j$ for $i=0,1,2$ and $j=0,1,2,3,4$. Now consider what $yx$ could be. – user10354138 May 17 '19 at 09:53
  • @risavjain That's not a joke. This is most certainly doable and people are doing this. Google "A millennium project: constructing small groups". It shows the way to construct all groups of order up to 2000. That was year 2000. It is probably much better now. And the case 15 is a lot simplier because it has to have two cyclic subgroups of order 3 and 5 that generate whole group. It is not hard to check all possible combinations between 3 element set and 5 element set. – freakish May 17 '19 at 09:56
  • @freakish sorry i misunderstood you – Rkb May 17 '19 at 09:59

3 Answers3

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Let $X_k$ be the set of elements of $G$ of order $k$. We know that $X_3,X_5$ are non-empty. Assume $X_{15}=\emptyset$. As distinct subgroups of prime order have trivial intersection, we conclude that $|X_5|$ is a multiple of $4$ and $|X_3|$ is a multiple of $2$. Thus $|X_3\cup X_5|=14$ is only possible if $(|X_3|,|X_5|)$ is one of $(2,12)$, $(6,8)$, $(10,4)$. In the first two cases, $|X_3|$ is not a multiple of $5$, hence the action by conjugation of any element $b\in X_5$ has a fixedpoint $a\in X_3$. In the last case, $|X_5|$ is not a multiple of $3$, hence the action by conjugation of any $a\in X_3$ has a fixedpoint $b\in X_5$. At any rate we have $ab=ba$, hence $(ab)^3=b^3\ne1$, $(ab)^5=a\ne 1$, contradiction.

We conclude that $X_{15}\ne\emptyset$ and hence $G$ is cyclic, in particular abelian.

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Sure. Instead of Sylow's theorems we can get normality of a subgroup by the following: if $p$ is the smallest prime dividing $|G|$ then any subgroup of index $p$ is normal in $G$ (you can consider this an exercise if you want, but a proof can be found here). For us, $|G|=15$ so $p=3$.

Now, there exists an element $g\in G$ of order $5$ (why?). This generates a subgroup $N$, and $N$ is normal by the above. Consider $G/N$, which is cyclic of order $3$. Pick some element $h\not\in N$. The cyclicity of $GN$ means that if $h\not\in N$ then $h^3\in N$.

Suppose $h^3\neq1$. Then $h$ has order $15$ and $G$ is cyclic (and hence abelian).

Suppose $h^3=1$. Then we have to use semidirect products: $G$ splits as a semidirect product $N\rtimes_{\phi}G/N$, where $\phi: G/N\rightarrow\operatorname{Aut}(N)$. Recalling all the isomorphisms, we have: $\mathbb{Z}_5\rtimes_{\phi}\mathbb{Z}_3$, where $\phi: \mathbb{Z}_3\rightarrow\operatorname{Aut}(\mathbb{Z}_5)$. Now, $\operatorname{Aut}(\mathbb{Z}_5)\cong\mathbb{Z}_4$ (why?) so $\phi$ is the trivial map. Hence, $G\cong \mathbb{Z}_5\times\mathbb{Z}_5\cong\mathbb{Z}_{15}$, and so $G$ is cyclic (and hence abelian).


I think Sylow's theorems are more low-level than semidirect products. It would be nice to see a proof which didn't use semidirect products :-)

user1729
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Let $G$ be a group of order $15$. There exist an element $a$ of order $5$ and an element $b$ of order $3$. Now we consider $b^{-1}ab$, and we have $(b^{-1}ab)^5 = 1$. So $o(b^{-1}ab)\mid 5$, which implies $o(b^{-1}ab) = 1$ or $5$. It cannot be $1$, otherwise $ab = b$ and so $a = 1$, a contradiction. Thus $o(b^{-1}ab) = 5$.

We claim that $b^{-1}ab = a^m$ for some $m$. Otherwise $\langle a\rangle$, $\langle b^{-1}ab\rangle$, $\langle bab^{-1} = b^{-2}ab^2\rangle$ are three subgroups of $G$ of order $5$, each two of them intersect trivially. So we have $$G = \{1,a,\dots,a^4,b^{-1}ab,\dots,(b^{-1}ab)^4,b^{-2}ab^2,\dots,(b^{-2}ab^2)^4,b,b^2\}.$$ However, you may check that $ba$ is not in this set.


To check $ba\ne a^k,ba^kb^{-1},b^k$ is easy, we now check $ba\ne b^{-1}a^kb$.

For $k = 1$, we have $aba^{-1}=b^2=b^{-1}$, then $a^2b=ba^2$. Hence $b,a^2$ commutative and thus $b,a = (a^2)^3$ commutative.

For $k = 2$, $bababa = b^{-1}ab$ and so $b^{-1}ab = (ba^2ba)^2$, we have an element of order $10$, a contradiction.

For $k=3$, $baba = b^{-1}ab$ and so $(b^2ab^2)^2 = a$.

For $k = 4$, then $a^{-1}b^{-1} = (ba)^{-1} = b^{-1}ab$ and so $(ab^{-1})^2 = 1$.


Note that $o(b) = 3$, and so $m^3\equiv 1\pmod 5$. The only solution of that equation is $m\equiv 1\pmod 5$. Therefore, $b^{-1}ab = a$. Now $ab$ is of order $15$, $G = \langle ab\rangle$ is cyclic.

Groups
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    Why is $ba$ not in your set? Its not immediately obvious that, for example, $ba\neq b^{-1}ab$. – user1729 May 17 '19 at 11:32
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    If so, then $aba^{-1} = b^2 = b^{-1}$, then $a^2b = ba^2$, so $b,a^2$ commutative, and thus $b,a=(a^2)^4$ commutative.@user1729 – Groups May 17 '19 at 11:42
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    Or $a^2=b^{-1}a^2b = (b^{-1}ab)^2$, so they intersect non-trivially. – Groups May 17 '19 at 11:47
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    Ok. Why can't we have $ba=b^{-1}a^2b$ then? IMO you need to check all the possibilities. It is easy to exclude $ba=a^j$ and $ba=b^{-2}a^jb^2$ for in the latter case $b^{-2}=b$ can be cancelled. But $ba=b^{-1}a^jb$ leaves four possibilities for $j$. – Jyrki Lahtonen May 17 '19 at 11:48
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    For $j=2$, $bababa = b^{-1}ab$ and so $b^{-1}ab = (ba^2ba)^2$. For $j=3$, $baba = b^{-1}ab$ and so $(b^2ab^2)^2 = a$. For $j = 4$, $a^{-1}b^{-1} = (ba)^{-1} = b^{-1}ab$ and so $(ab^{-1})^2 = 1$. – Groups May 17 '19 at 12:37
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    @HongyiHuang It would be good if you could edit these into your answer (even as a footnote), so that they are not lost. – user1729 May 17 '19 at 12:44
  • How are you able to tell that it has element of order 5 as well as 3? – Rkb May 17 '19 at 13:56
  • @risavjain See https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/765902/let-g-be-a-finite-abelian-group-and-let-p-be-a-prime-that-divides-order-of – Groups May 17 '19 at 14:00
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    @risavjain This is a result called Cauchy's Theorem: If $p$ divides the order of a group $G$ then there exists an element of order $p$ in $G$. – user1729 May 17 '19 at 14:36
  • @user1729 Thanks – Rkb May 18 '19 at 03:45