This seems like a simple question, but I am stumped. I know the proofs for quadratic variation and cross variation, etc..., but for some reason can't understand why the following doesn't make sense to do: \begin{equation} [Z,Z]([0,t])=\lim_{\delta_n\to 0}\sum_{i=1}^{n}(\,Z(t_i)-Z(t_{i-1})\,)^2 \leq \lim_{\delta_n\to 0}\sum_{i=1}^{n}(\max_i [Z(t_i)-Z(t_{i-1})]\,)^2 = 0 \\\implies \lim_{\delta_n\to 0}\sum_{i=1}^{n}(\,Z(t_i)-Z(t_{i-1})\,)^2 = 0 \end{equation}
I am unsure why this reasoning can't hold, and it's making the proofs for QVs of other processes confusing. It seems like I have passed the limit through the summation and then assumed the product of the maxes is $0$, so if those don't hold I am wondering why not. It seems like passing a limit that is essentially $\lim_{n \to \infty}$ through the sum doesn't make sense to do, so would that be the mistake here? I was thinking of it in the sense of: \begin{equation} \lim_{n \to \infty} \sum_{i=1}^nx_i(n) = \lim_{n \to \infty} \sum_{i=1}^n\lim_{n \to \infty}x_i(n) \end{equation} or \begin{equation} \lim_{n \to \infty} \sum_{i=1}^nx_i(n) = \sum_{i=1}^{\infty}\lim_{n \to \infty}x_i(n) \end{equation} Thanks for the help!