According to the Wikipedia entry and a few I've seen online, the remainder form with a $(n+1) \text{th}$ derivative can be used as long as $f: \mathbb R \to \mathbb R$, is $n+1$ times differentiable and $f^{(n)}$ is continuous. I am going to assume bounded intervals here since I think that is implicit in most cases. The remainder form is written like this: \begin{equation} f(x)=f(a)+\sum_{k=1}^{n}\frac{f^{(k)}(a)(x-a)^k}{k!}+ \frac{f^{(n+1)}(c)(x-a)^{n+1}}{(n+1)!} \end{equation} and so there is a $(n+1) \text{th}$ derivative involved, and my question is how do we know that the derivative is bounded? According to the comments on this answer: https://math.stackexchange.com/a/492165/463358, it needs to be asserted that the $(n+1) \text{th}$ derivative is bounded, but then someone comments that the assumptions above are enough to imply the boundedness.
I am currently thinking that the boundedness isn't implied by the conditions above, since $f^{(n)}$'s continuity seems to at best imply uniform continuity on bounded intervals, but not something stronger like absolute or Lipschitz. And since $f^{(n+1)}$ is not necessarily continuous we can't assert that it is bounded on a bounded interval.
I am not sure what I'm missing here and I've searched around a lot but can't find anything clear enough. Thanks for the help!
(There's a similar question here: Conditions of the Taylor Theorem, but it doesn't seem to address my particular question.)