How to prove $(\mathbb{R}\backslash \mathbb{Q})\cap (x,y)\neq \emptyset$ for $x,y\in \mathbb{R}$ and $x<y$?
Sorry, but I don't even know how to start. Any ideas and impulses?
How to prove $(\mathbb{R}\backslash \mathbb{Q})\cap (x,y)\neq \emptyset$ for $x,y\in \mathbb{R}$ and $x<y$?
Sorry, but I don't even know how to start. Any ideas and impulses?