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In proofs/books/papers on mathematics the pronoun "we" is usually used. For example:

In order to derive the quadratic formula we first complete the square.
Or:
... we can deduce this using Euler's theorem ...

etc.

What is the history or origins of using we instead of I? Because certainly there is only the author who at that moment is actually doing anything!

In particular then is the "we" a 'royal we' or a collective pronoun?

Matthew
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    I think it means "The author and the reader", assuming that the reader is following the flow of thought that the author is presenting in the text. But I think they are similar (the royal we and the mathematical we) since the former means "God and I" while the latter is "the Reader and I" :D – BAI May 04 '19 at 11:08
  • It's probably the case that the "we" incorporates the writer and either their colleagues or the reader. It could very well be both – Rhys Hughes May 04 '19 at 11:09
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    Related: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/668645/using-we-have-in-maths-papers – Alberto Takase May 04 '19 at 11:10
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    If you want actual origins (as in when did it become common and who did it first) it might be worthwhile to ask on [hsm.se]. – hmakholm left over Monica May 04 '19 at 11:13

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It's collective. The author is trying to involve us in the work rather than telling us what they are doing for us. Sometimes I even write "if you complete the square you will see ..."

Ethan Bolker
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