Let $f:[-\pi,\pi]\to\Bbb C$ be continuous such that $f(-\pi)=f(\pi)$. Let $a_n = \displaystyle \int_{-\pi}^\pi f(\theta) \overline{\exp(in\theta)} \frac{\mathrm d\theta}{2\pi}$ for $n \in \Bbb Z$ be its Fourier coefficients. It is clear that the Fourier series $\displaystyle \sum_{n \in \Bbb Z} a_n \exp(in\theta)$ converges to $f(\theta)$ almost everywhere, and that for every null set $E$ there is such an $f$ such that the Fourier series diverges exactly on $E$.
So, in particular, there is such an $f$ such that its Fourier series diverges at $\theta=0$.
However, I searched examples of such functions to no avail, since they are behind paywalls. The closest I got to such an example is in the article Beispiele Stetiger Funktionen mit Divergenter Fourierreihe ("Examples of Continuous Functions with Divergent Fourier Series"), where it is said:
Bekanntlich hat P. du Bois-Reymond zuerst die Existenz einer überall stetigen Funktion erwiesen, deren Fouriersche Reihe an einer Stelle divergiert.
Herr H. A. Schwarz gab dann ein einfacheres Beispiel.
translated:
"It is well known that P[aul] du Bois-Reymond was the first to demonstrate the existence of an everywhere continuous function with a Fourier series that diverges at a point.
Then, H[ermann] A[mandus] Schwarz gave an easier example."
So my question is, could one give an explicit example of such an $f$ whose Fourier series diverges (only) at $\theta=0$?