I'm a 3rd year undergraduate, majoring in pure mathematics. I've done well in the "proof-based" subjects I've taken, and I think that's because I understand the "rules of the game." That is, predicate logic + how to write a coherent proof. Furthermore, people are explicit about what they mean, stating their premises, quantifying explicitly (for all $x$, there exists $y$ such that...), distinguishing between "A implies B" and "A iff B", etc. This obviously really helps.
Recently, however, I've been finding that "technique-based" (as opposed to "proof-based") subjects like complex analysis, vector calculus, differential equations etc. are beginning to frustrate me, and I'm starting to get bad marks, too. It's like when I'm sitting in these lectures, the "logic" of math suddenly becomes opaque. I can never tell what the premises are. I often don't know whether we're trying to show that "A implies B", or whether we're trying to show that "A iff B". Stuff is happening on the board, but the "rules of the game" just aren't clear to me.
Does anyone else have a similar problem with "technique-based" math? And if so, what can be done about it?
Let me give an example. Below, I've copied some of this problem from Wikipedia, and I have inserted my own thoughts in italics.
A separable linear ordinary differential equation of the first order must be homogeneous and has the general form $$(1)\qquad \frac{dy}{dt}+f(t)y=0.$$
where $f(t)$ is some known function.
I can't tell if (1) is being taken as a premise or not.
We may solve this by separation of variables (moving the $y$ terms to one side and the $t$ terms to the other side).
$$(2)\qquad\frac{dy}{y}=-f(t)dt$$
Are you asserting that (2) follows from (1), or are you saying they're logically equivalent? And I still don't know whether equation (1) is a premise, or what our premises are.
Since the separation of variables in this case involves dividing by $y$, we must check if the constant function $y=0$ is a solution of the original equation. Trivially, if $y=0$ then $y'=0$, so $y=0$ is actually a solution of the original equation. We note that $y=0$ is not allowed in the transformed equation.
Clearly, if $y$ is everywhere zero, then equation (1) holds. But what's all this "we must check" nonsense? Are you trying to say that the statement "the function $y$ is everywhere zero, or equation (2) holds" is logically equivalent to the statement that "equation (1) holds?" If that's what you're meaning, why don't you just say so? If the argument was just laid out in a coherent fashion, nonsense like "we must check" simply wouldn't appear.
We solve the transformed equation with the variables already separated by integrating, $$(3) \qquad \mathrm{ln} \,y = \left(-\int f(t)dt\right)+C$$ where $C$ is an arbitrary constant.
Are you trying to say that if (2) holds, then there exists $C$ such that (3) holds? Then why don't you just say so? Or maybe you're trying to say that for all $C$, (3) holds iff (2) holds. I honestly can't tell.
Well you get the general gist. So my question is, can other people relate to this, and what can be done about it?