$$\frac{1}{2\pi}\int\limits_{0}^{\infty}\int\limits_{-x}^{\infty}e^{-\frac{(x^2+y^2)}{2}}dydx$$
Is there a particularly nice way of working this to an exact value? The -x on the limits of integration makes this a little different from how I am used to solving these.
I was told to look at differentiating it this way, but I didn't see where this was heading:
$$=\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{0}^{\infty}e^{-x^2/2}\int_{-x}^{\infty}e^{-y^2/2}dydx$$ Let $g(x) =\int_{-x}^{\infty}e^{-y^2/2}dy$
$$=\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{0}^{\infty}e^{-x^2/2}g(x)dx$$
Let $2\pi*F(t)=\int_{0}^{t}e^{-x^2/2}g(x)dx$.
Thus $2\pi*F'(t)=e^{-t^2/2}g(t)-g(0)=e^{-t^2/2}g(t)-\frac{\sqrt{2\pi}}{2}$
At this point I don't see which move to make.