It is true that if $\lim _n a_n = 0$, then $\lim_n\dfrac{1}{n}\sum_{j=0}^n|a_j|=0$ ?
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Next time please provide what you have tried so far – SK19 Apr 13 '19 at 18:07
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@DavidMitra The question is if the limit is zero, then the Cesaro Mean converges to the same limit. In case zero – Ilovemath Apr 13 '19 at 18:16
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2See the answer to this. – David Mitra Apr 13 '19 at 18:26
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Thank you for your help @DavidMitra – Ilovemath Apr 13 '19 at 18:34
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Edit: This is an answer to the previous post which has been edited.
False:
Take $a_n=\frac{1}{\log{n}}$

DINEDINE
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OK, I hadn't noticed that. – Perhaps you should add that information to the answer, as it is currently misleading. – Martin R Apr 13 '19 at 20:31
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Yes, and I would do this by splitting the sum. Let $\epsilon>0$ and take $N$ large so that $m>N$ implies $|a_m|<\epsilon.$ Then for $n>N$ we have
$$\frac{1}{n}\sum_{j=0}^n|a_j|=\frac{\sum_{j=0}^{N-1}|a_j|}{n}+\frac{1}{n}\sum_{j=N}^n|a_j|\leq\frac{\sum_{j=0}^{N-1}|a_j|}{n}+\frac{1}{n}(n\epsilon)=\frac{\sum_{j=0}^{N-1}|a_j|}{n}+\epsilon.$$ By order limits $$0\leq\lim_{n}\frac{1}{n}\sum_{j=0}^n|a_j|\leq\epsilon.$$ Since $\epsilon$ was arbitary we have $$\lim_{n}\frac{1}{n}\sum_{j=0}^n|a_j|=0$$ as desired.

Melody
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