Show that the congruence $$(x^2 - 2)(x^2 - 3)(x^2 - 6) \equiv 0 \text{ mod } p$$ For every prime $p$
I am quite stuck on this problem and not sure how to approach it. Do I argue by contradiction?
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ʎpoqou
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2Hint : Consider the quadratic residues – Peter Apr 13 '19 at 13:17
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3What do you know about the product of two quadratic non-residues? – Catalin Zara Apr 13 '19 at 13:19