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Let $S_r(x)$ the sphere of radius $r>0$ centered at the point $x\in\mathbb{R}^{n}$, that is

$$S_{r}(x)=\{y\in\mathbb{R}^n : |x −y| = r\} $$

Let $\sigma$ be the $(n-1)$-volume on $S_r(x)$, and note that $\sigma(S_{r} (x)) =\omega_{n}r^{n-1}$ where $\omega$ is the area of the unit $(n-1)$-sphere in $\mathbb{R}^n$. Prove that, for any $f\in C^{2}(\mathbb{R}^{n})$ and for all $x\in\mathbb{R}^{n}$,

$$\dfrac{1}{\omega_{n}r^{n-1}}\left(\int_{S_{r}(x)}{fd\sigma}\right)-f(x)=\Delta f(x) \dfrac{r^{2}}{2n}+O(r^{2})$$

My approach: Let $x=0$, we have, by Taylor’s expansion at $0$,

$$f(y)=f(0)+\sum_{i=1}^{n}{\dfrac{\partial f(0)}{\partial y_i}y_i}+\frac{1}{2}\sum_{i,j=1}^{n}{\dfrac{\partial^2 f(0)}{\partial y_i\partial y_j}y_{i}y_{j}}$$

So, I need prove that $$\int_{S_r}{y_{i}d\sigma(y)}=0 $$ $$\int_{S_r}{y_{i}y_{j}d\sigma(y)}=0\qquad \mbox{ if } i\neq j$$

Where $S_r=S_{r}(0)$, Can give me some hint to prove this, I think this happen 'cause a symmetri on the sphere. So, we can see that the function $f(y)=y_i$ is an odd function, so if we integrate this function in symmetric domain we have that the first integral is zero, i.e.,

$$I=\int_{S_r}{y_{i}d\sigma(y)}=0$$

So, $I=0$. But isn't clear to me why the second integral vanish.

Another quesion I have is, what happend if I take $f(x)$ as $\Delta f(x)$?, I mean, is correct that

$$\dfrac{1}{\omega_{n}r^{n-1}}\left(\int_{S_{r}(x)}{\Delta f d\sigma}\right)-\Delta f(x)=\Delta (\Delta f(x)) \dfrac{r^{2}}{2n}+O(r^{2})\qquad\quad (*)$$

Thanks!!!!!

  • Don't worry about changes of variables. Think about the symmetry of the domain and the symmetry of the integrand. Try it out when n = 2 to get a picture of what's going on, and then try to generalize. – Chris Apr 14 '19 at 17:00
  • The symmetry thing is obvious. – See also this: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/50274/intuitive-interpretation-of-the-laplacian/50285#50285 – Christian Blatter Apr 14 '19 at 18:14
  • @Chris Ok, but isn't clear to me, that the second integral =0. – Marta Lopez Apr 17 '19 at 01:49

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