We know $e^{2\pi i} = 1$, and that $(x^m)^n = x^{mn}$. This way, we can rewrite $e^{n}$ as some version of $(e^{2\pi i})^{\frac{n}{2\pi i}}$ for most n (right?).
But if this is true, then why isn't $e^3 = 1$, for example, if we can rewrite it as $(e^{2\pi i})^{\frac{3}{2\pi i}} = (1)^{\frac{3}{2\pi i}} = 1$ ? What am I missing here?
I just came upon this issue by accident while doing a problem, and I'm not sure how to best resolve it.