Is this always true? Is it always true for any consecutive integers (change 5 and 6 for any consecutive numbers).
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1yes. write $6 = 5+1$ and use binomial theorem – mathworker21 Apr 07 '19 at 06:46
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4Duplicate of Why is $a^n - b^n$ divisible by $a-b$? – Bill Dubuque Apr 07 '19 at 15:12
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Welcome to Mathematics Stack Exchange! A quick tour will enhance your experience. Here are helpful tips to write a good question and write a good answer. For typesetting, please use MathJax. – dantopa Apr 08 '19 at 03:08
4 Answers
We have the polynomial identity:
$x^n - 1 = (x - 1) \displaystyle \sum_1^n x^{i - 1} = (x - 1)(x^{n - 1} + x^{n - 2} + \ldots + x + 1), \tag 1$
which holds for all $1 \le n \in \Bbb N$; setting
$x = 6 \tag 2$
yields
$6^n - 1 = (6 - 1) \displaystyle \sum_1^n 6^{i - 1} = 5\sum_1^n 6^{i - 1}, \tag 3$
whence
$5 \mid 6^n - 1, \; \forall n \ge 1. \tag 4$
Note Added in Edit, Sunday 7 April 2019 12:03 AM PST: Note that in fact our identity (1) allows us to conclude that for any integer $z$,
$(z - 1) \mid z^n - 1; \tag 5$
just take $x = z$; so, for example
$12 \mid (13)^n - 1, \; \forall 1 \le n \in \Bbb N, \tag 6$
und so weiter . . . End of Note.

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$6 \equiv 1\ (\text {mod}\ 5) \implies 6^n \equiv 1\ (\text {mod}\ 5) \implies 6^n-1 \equiv 0\ (\text {mod}\ 5).$

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For any integer $a$ and its consecutive integer $a+1$, it is the case that $a+1\equiv 1 \mod a$
$(a+1)^n-1 \equiv 1^n-1 \equiv 0 \mod a$. This means the same as $a\mid (a+1)^n-1$
So what is true for $5$ and $6$ is true for all consecutive integers.

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