I assume that the space is $\mathbb{R}^n$ with standard topology.
Your claim is false as it is, e.g. a single point is a convex set, but it's interior is empty, so $\mathrm{cl}(\{p\}) = \{p\} \neq \varnothing = \mathrm{cl}(\mathrm{int}(\{p\}))$. However, under the assumption that the interior is non-empty, that is $\mathrm{int}(A) \neq \varnothing$, your claim is true.
Let $x \in \mathrm{cl}(A)$ and let $y \in \mathrm{int}(A)$ be any point from the interior of $A$. We know that the interior $\mathrm{int}(A)$ is open, so there exists a ball $B(y,\delta) \subset \mathrm{int}(A)$. Moreover $A$ is convex, hence for all $z \in B(y,\delta)$ we have $[xz] \subset A$. This in turn implies that $(xy] \subset \mathrm{int}(A)$, and finally $x \in \mathrm{cl}(\mathrm{int}(A))$.
The above implies $\mathrm{cl}(A) \subset \mathrm{cl}(\mathrm{int}(A))$, of course $\mathrm{cl}(\bullet)$ is monotone with respecto to $\subset$, therefore $\mathrm{cl}(A) = \mathrm{cl}(\mathrm{int}(A))$.
Have fun ;-)