My question is about a short combinatorial discussion in Herstein's Topics in Algebra, on page 92, preceding one of his three proofs of Sylow's Theorem. I will cite the important part:
If $p^r | m$ but $p^{r+1} \nmid m$, consider $$\binom {p^\alpha m}{p^{\alpha}} = \frac{(p^{\alpha}m)!}{(p^{\alpha})!(p^{\alpha}m-p^{\alpha})!} = \frac {p^{\alpha}m(p^{\alpha}m-1) \dots (p^{\alpha}m-i) \dots (p^{\alpha}m-p^{\alpha} + 1)} {p^{\alpha}(p^{\alpha}-1) \dots (p^{\alpha}-i) \dots (p^{\alpha}-p^{\alpha} + 1)}.$$ The question is, What power of p divides $\binom {p^{\alpha} m}{p^{\alpha}}$? Looking at this number, written out as we have written it out, one can see that except for the term $m$ in the numerator, the powers of $p$ dividing $(p^{\alpha}m-i$$)$ is the same as that dividing $p^{\alpha}-i$, so all powers of $p$ cancel out except the power which divides $m$. Thus $p^r | \binom {p^{\alpha} m}{p^{\alpha}}$ but $p^{r+1} \nmid \binom {p^{\alpha} m}{p^{\alpha}}$.
My understanding is as follows. $\binom {p^\alpha m}{p^{\alpha}} = m *\frac{\binom {p^\alpha m}{p^{\alpha}}}{m}$, consider the unique factorization of both factors. The right will not contain any nonzero powers of $p$, and so the power of $p$ dividing our binomial is the largest power in the unique factorization of $m$. But there are two gaps in my understanding: why is the second factor neccesarily an integer, and why does the second factor not contain powers of $p$? Herstein explains this second question, but I don't get his argument.