Let $\Omega \subseteq \mathbb{R}^n$ open and $f \in BV(\Omega) \cap C^{\infty}(\Omega)$. Now I would like to prove that $f \in W_1^1(\Omega)$. I know that the distributional derivates of $f$ are the classical derivates, but I don't find a way to show that $\partial_if \in L_1(\Omega)$ for $i=1,...,n$. Can maybe someone help me? :)
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What is BV? And why wouldn't you write it out? – David G. Stork Mar 23 '19 at 22:13
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1Oh sorry, I thought this space would be well-known. BV is the space of functions of bounded variation. For a definiton look here https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bounded_variation. – Matthis Stresemann Mar 23 '19 at 22:32
1 Answers
EDIT. In 2019 I left unfinished this answer. In 2020, just after Christmas I answered a related question, and today, after a few months of lock down, I decided to finish it by using the same method employed for the latter answer, just for the sake of completeness, and in the hope that this will be useful for someone.
In order to correctly answer the question, let's state explicitly the two definitions lying at the roots of the theory of BV functions (see for example [1], chapter 1, pp. 3-4):
Definition 1. Let $\Omega\subseteq \Bbb R^n$ be an open set and let $f\in L^1(\Omega)$. The total variation of f (in $\Omega$) is the following non negative quantity
$$\DeclareMathOperator{\grd}{\operatorname{grad}} \DeclareMathOperator{\dvg}{\operatorname{div}}
\DeclareMathOperator{\supp}{\mathrm{supp}}
V(f,\Omega)=\sup\Bigg\{\int\limits_\Omega\! f(x)\dvg{\mathbf{g}(x)}\,\mathrm{d}x\,\Big|\,\mathbf{g}=(g_1,\ldots,g_n)\in C_0^1(\Omega,\Bbb R^n),\;|\mathbf{g}(x)|\le1\,\forall x\in\Omega\Bigg\}
$$
Definition 2. A function $f\in L^1(\Omega)$ is said to have bounded variation if $V(f,\Omega)<\infty$. $BV(\Omega)$ is defined as the space of all functions in $L^1(\Omega)$ of bounded variation.
Now consider $f\in BV(\Omega)\cap C^1(\Omega)$: then, for every $\mathbf{g}(x) \in C_0^1(\Omega,\Bbb R^n)$ such that $\;|\mathbf{g}(x)|\le1$ on $\Omega$, we have that $$ \begin{split} \int\limits_\Omega\! f(x)\dvg{\mathbf{g}(x)}\,\mathrm{d}x &= - \int\limits_\Omega \sum_{i=1}^n \frac{\partial f(x)}{\partial x_i}\cdot{ g_i(x)}\,\mathrm{d}x\\ &= -\int\limits_\Omega\langle\grd f(x),{\mathbf{g}(x)}\rangle\,\mathrm{d}x.\\ \end{split}\label{1}\tag{1} $$ A first consequence of this formula is the following result, obtained by using the Cauchy-Schwartz inequality, $$ \begin{split} -\langle\grd\!f(x) ,{\mathbf{g}(x)}\rangle &\le |\langle\grd\!f(x) ,{\mathbf{g}(x)}\rangle| \\ & = \left| \sum_{i=1}^n \frac{\partial f(x)}{\partial x_i}\cdot{ g_i(x)}\right|\\ &\le \left( \sum_{i=1}^n \left|\frac{\partial f(x)}{\partial x_i}\right|^2\right)^\frac{1}{2}\left( \sum_{i=1}^n g_i(x)^2\right)^\frac{1}{2} \\ \\ & = \vert\grd\!f(x)\vert|\mathbf{g}(x)|\le\vert\grd\!f(x)\vert \end{split} $$ which in turn implies $$ -\int\limits_{\supp\mathbf{g}}\langle\grd\!f(x),{\mathbf{g}(x)}\rangle\,\mathrm{d}x\le \int\limits_{\supp\mathbf{g}}\vert\grd\!f(x)\vert\,\mathrm{d}x \label{2}\tag{2} $$
Define the positive and negative parts of the components of $\grd f$ as $$ \partial_i f^+(x)= \begin{cases} \dfrac{\partial f(x)}{\partial x_i} & \dfrac{\partial f(x)}{\partial x_i}> 0\\ 0 & \dfrac{\partial f(x)}{\partial x_i}\le 0 \end{cases}\qquad \partial_if^-(x)= \begin{cases} 0 & \dfrac{\partial f(x)}{\partial x_i}\ge 0\\ -\dfrac{\partial f(x)}{\partial x_i} & \dfrac{\partial f(x)}{\partial x_i}< 0 \end{cases}\\ \forall x\in\Bbb R^n,\: i=1, \ldots, n, $$ and their support sets as $$\DeclareMathOperator{\intr}{\operatorname{int}} \DeclareMathOperator{\closr}{\operatorname{clo}} \begin{align} \Omega^+_i & \triangleq \intr\closr\Big\{x\in\Omega : \tfrac{\partial f(x)}{\partial x_i} > 0\Big\} \\ \Omega^-_i & \triangleq \intr\closr\Big\{x\in\Omega : \tfrac{\partial f(x)}{\partial x_i} < 0\Big\} \end{align} \qquad i=1, \ldots, n. $$ where $\closr$ and $\intr$ are respectively the closure and the interior operators. Then, from \eqref{1}, we have $$ -\int\limits_{\Omega} \langle\grd f(x) , \mathbf{g}(x) \rangle \mathrm{d}x = \sum_{i=1}^n \Bigg[\,\int\limits_{\Omega} \partial_i f^-(x) g_i(x)\, \mathrm{d}x - \int\limits_{\Omega} \partial_if^+(x) g_i(x) \, \mathrm{d}x \Bigg]\qquad\forall \mathbf g\in C^{1}_0(\Omega,\mathbb{R}^n). $$ Since the sets $\Omega_i^\pm$ are open and non empty (at least not for all $i$) and thus contain non empty compact subsetsets $K_i^\pm$, $i=1, \ldots, n$, for each of them, by using partitions of unity, it is possible construct a compactly supported family of functions ${\varphi}^\pm_i(x)\in C^\infty_0(\Omega,\mathbb{R})$ in such a way that $$ \begin{split} 0\le\varphi^\pm_i &(x) \le 1\quad \forall x\in \Omega^\pm_i\\ \varphi^\pm_i &(x) = 1 \quad \forall x\in K^\pm_i\\ &\supp \varphi^\pm_i \Subset \Omega^\pm_i \end{split}\label{3}\tag{K} $$ By defining $\varphi_i(x)=\varphi_i^-(x)-\varphi^+_i(x)$ and $\boldsymbol{\varphi}(x)= \big(\varphi_1(x), \ldots, \varphi_n(x)\big)$ we have $$ -\int\limits_{\Omega} \langle \grd f(x) , \boldsymbol{\varphi}(x) \rangle \mathrm{d}x = \sum_{i=1}^n \Bigg[\,\int\limits_{\Omega} g^+_i(x) \varphi_i^+(x)\, \mathrm{d}x + \int\limits_{\Omega} g^-_i(x) \varphi_i^-(x) \, \mathrm{d}x \Bigg], $$ and then $$ \begin{split} V(f,\Omega) & \ge \sup_{\boldsymbol{\varphi}(x)\in K_0(\Omega, \Bbb R^n)} \sum_{i=1}^n \Bigg[\,\int\limits_{\Omega} \partial_i f^+(x) \varphi_i^+(x)\, \mathrm{d}x + \int\limits_{\Omega} \partial_i f^-(x) \varphi_i^-(x) \, \mathrm{d}x \Bigg]\\ & = \sum_{i=1}^n \int\limits_{\Omega} \bigg|\frac{\partial f(x)}{\partial x_i}\bigg| \, \mathrm{d}x \ge \int\limits_{\Omega} |\grd f(x)| \, \mathrm{d}x \ge 0. \end{split} $$ where $K_0(\Omega, \Bbb R^n)\subsetneq C^1_0(\Omega, \Bbb R^n)$ is the set of compactly supported functions constructed by using relations \eqref{3}. This inequality, since $f\in BV(\Omega)$, implies $$ \int\limits_\Omega\vert\operatorname{grad}\!f(x)\vert\,\mathrm{d}x<\infty\iff \operatorname{grad}\!f(x)\in L^1(\Omega,\Bbb R^n) $$ Having proved the $L^1$ integrability of the gradient of $f$, by applying \eqref{2} we have that $$ \begin{split} \int\limits_\Omega\vert\operatorname{grad}\!f(x)\vert\,\mathrm{d}x & \ge \sup\Bigg\{ \int\limits_{\supp\mathbf{g}}\vert\grd\!f(x)\vert\,\mathrm{d}x \,\Big|\,\mathbf{g}\in C_0^1(\Omega,\Bbb R^n),\;|\mathbf{g}(x)|\le1\,\forall x\in\Omega \Bigg\} \\ &\ge \sup\Bigg\{\!\!-\!\!\int\limits_{\supp\mathbf{g}}\langle\grd\!f(x),{\mathbf{g}(x)}\rangle\,\mathrm{d}x \,\Big|\,\mathbf{g}\in C_0^1(\Omega,\Bbb R^n),\;|\mathbf{g}(x)|\le1\,\forall x\in\Omega\Bigg\} =V(f,\Omega) \end{split} $$ and thus $$ V(f,\Omega)=\int\limits_\Omega\vert\grd f(x)\vert\,\mathrm{d}x\iff f\in W^{1,1}(\Omega) $$ The reasoning is exactly the same if we consider $f\in BV(\Omega)\cap C^\infty(\Omega)$.
Notes
As stated above, this answer closely follows this one: the only point of departure is possibly the use of the inequality $$ \sum_{i=1}^n \int\limits_{\Omega} \bigg|\frac{\partial f(x)}{\partial x_i}\bigg| \, \mathrm{d}x \ge \int\limits_{\Omega} |\grd f(x)| \, \mathrm{d}x $$
Reference.
[1] Enrico Giusti (1984), Minimal surfaces and functions of bounded variations, Monographs in Mathematics, 80, Basel–Boston–Stuttgart: Birkhäuser Verlag, pp. XII+240, ISBN 978-0-8176-3153-6, MR 0775682, Zbl 0545.49018

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1Thank you for this long answer. I guess you wanna use the monotone convergence Thm. to prove the last equality. Therefore, you need a sequence of non-negative measurable functions. But $f$ and $\partial_i f$ don't have to be non-negative, so I wonder how you exactly construct this approximating sequence. Do you split $f$ in its positive and negative part or what do you do? – Matthis Stresemann Mar 25 '19 at 14:42
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@MatthisStresemann the matter is simpler. I’ll post you some further notes later, since I am currently involved in a Work problem. – Daniele Tampieri Mar 25 '19 at 14:55
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@MatthisStresemann. I apologize for not being able to refine my answer last evening: I will try to do it this one. However, just a few remarks: the trick which proves the last equality is simply to consider classes of test functions $\mathbf g$ whose $i$-th components are positive when $\partial_i f>0$ and negative when $\partial_i f<0$. Also remember that we are simply searching for the $\sup$, not for the equality $\limsup=\liminf=\lim$ i.e. we are not calculating a limit. – Daniele Tampieri Mar 26 '19 at 06:48
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Sorry, but I still don't see it. Could you eventually give me the exact definition of the sequence $g$? – Matthis Stresemann Mar 26 '19 at 12:39
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@MatthisStresemann I'll try to add this evening a constructive method to determine the test function $\mathbf{g}$. I apologize again for my later in clarifying my answer above: it seems the fate of my answers involving delicate (and perhaps folclore) points to be delayed in their completion by my job commitments. – Daniele Tampieri Mar 26 '19 at 13:05
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@MatthisStresemann I apologize again, but I've not been able to complete my answer above. I will try this evening: the problem, apart from my working commitment, is that the point you need to clarify is assumed to be so standard (read folklore) that it is difficult to find an elementary way to show it. – Daniele Tampieri Mar 27 '19 at 06:49
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1I think I have found another way to show that $f \in W_1^1$.Therefore, you don't need to construct a sequence like $g$. But you can still present your solution if you want. – Matthis Stresemann Mar 27 '19 at 12:47
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@MatthisStresemann I have added a sketch of the proof of the equality $$V(f,\Omega)=\int\limits_\Omega |\mathrm{grad}f(x)|\mathrm{d}x\quad f\in C^1(\Omega)\cap L^1(\Omega).$$ As I told you, it is not necessary to invoke any limit theorem under the integral symbol: it is sufficient to judiciously choose the support of the function $\mathbf{g}$ and evaluate the maximum value of the integrals involved. – Daniele Tampieri Apr 01 '19 at 10:51