I have a proof which uses sequences that converge to $0$. I think there is an easier proof than mine but I couldn't find. Is there anyone can prove this without using sequences? Or would you please give me some links? Epsilon-delta argument needed.
1 Answers
Fix $a \neq 0$, then $f(x) = a^x$ is a continuous function. Then $\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} f(x) = f(0) = a^0 = 1$. You have to prove two things:
- the limit of the sequence is the limit of the corresponding continuous functions (in $\mathbb{R}$);
- $a^x$ is continuous.
To prove (1):
the limit for sequences is $$\forall \epsilon>0, \ \exists \tilde{n} \in \mathbb{N}, \ \forall n>\tilde{n}, \ |a_n - a_{\tilde{n}}| < \epsilon$$
the limit for continuous functions (in $\mathbb{R}$) is $$\forall \epsilon > 0, \ \exists \delta > 0, |x-y| < \delta \Rightarrow |f(x)-f(y)| < \epsilon$$
If you already know that $f(x)$ is continuous in $0$, then calling $a_n = f(\frac{1}{n})$ you have $\lim_{x \rightarrow 0} f(x) = \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} a_n$, where the first is a limit of continuous functions, the second is of sequences.
To prove (2): you have to prove that the exponential is continuous. You can find some proofs in this site, like here.

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thanks, the link is very helpful – J.Bo Mar 23 '19 at 06:49