Take
$x < y < 0; \tag 1$
then
$f(y) - f(x) = \displaystyle \int_x^y f'(s)\; ds = \int_x^y (1 - e^{-s})\; ds; \tag 2$
it is clear that, for any $M < 0$, there exists $y_0 < 0$ such that
$s < y_0 \Longrightarrow 1 - e^{-s} < M; \tag 3$
if we now choose
$y < y_0, \tag 4$
then
$f(y) - f(x) = \displaystyle \int_x^y (1 - e^{-s})\; ds < \int_x^y M \; ds = M(y - x); \tag 5$
we re-arrange this inequality:
$f(x) - f(y) > -M(y - x) = M(x - y), \tag 6$
$f(x) > f(y) + M(x - y); \tag 7$
we now fix $y$ and let $x \to -\infty$; then since $M < 0$ and $x - y < 0$ for $x < y$,
$\displaystyle \lim_{x \to -\infty} f(y) + M(x - y) = \infty, \tag 8$
and hence
$\displaystyle \lim_{x \to -\infty}f(x) = \infty \tag 9$
as well.
We note that (9) binds despite the fact that $f'(x) < 0$ for $x < 0$; though this derivative is negative, when $x$ decreases we are "walking back up the hill," as it were; as $x$ decreases, $f(x)$ increases.
Note Added in Edit, Wednesday 20 March 2019 10:39 PM PST: We may also dispense with the title question and show
$x + e^{-x} > 0, \forall x \in \Bbb R; \tag{10}$
for
$x \ge 0, \tag{11}$
$e^{-x} > 0 \tag{12}$
as well, hence we also have
$x + e^{-x} > 0; \tag{13}$
for
$x < 0, \tag{14}$
we may use the power series for $e^{-x}$:
$e^{-x} = 1 - x + \dfrac{x^2}{2!} - \dfrac{x^3}{3} + \ldots; \tag{15}$
then
$x + e^{-x} = 1 + \dfrac{x^2}{2!} - \dfrac{x^3}{3!} + \ldots > 0, \tag{16}$
since every term on the right is positive when $x < 0$. End of Note.