Let $f: A \rightarrow B$ and $g: B \rightarrow C$ be two functions. Then $g \circ f$ is clearly defined $\forall a \in A$ but what about $f \circ g$, do we take it as undefined, given that A and C are disjoint? What if A and C are not disjoint?
Since domain of $g$ is the same as the codomain of $f$ hence $g \circ f$ exists $\forall a \in A$.
What I think: If A and C are disjoint sets, then $f(c)$ is not defined, since $c\in C$ is not in the domain of $f$
Am I missing something?