Show that $\forall x \ P(x) \lor \forall x \ Q(x) $ and $\forall x \ \forall y \ (P(x) \lor Q(y) )$ are logically equivalent.
I tried to consider three cases:
$\forall x \ P(x)$ is true,
$\forall x \ Q(x)$ is true or
both of them are true. (I'm stuck here and don't have any idea).