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Let $a_{1}=a$ and $a_{n+1}=\cos(a_{n})\;\forall \;n\;\in \mathbb{N}.$

Then $\lim\limits_{n\rightarrow \infty}(a_{n+2}-a_{n})$ is

Try: $a_{n+2}=\cos(a_{n+1})=\cos(\cos(a_{n}))=\cos(\cos(\cos (a_{n-1})))=\cdots \cdots \cos(\cos\cos\cos(\cdots \cdots \cos(a)))))))$

Did not know how can i solve it, could some help me , Thanks

DXT
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    Try to show that $\lim\limits_{n\rightarrow\infty}a_n$ exists, first (e.g. here). Then the limit of the difference is the difference of the limits. Or the sequence is Cauchy. – rtybase Feb 26 '19 at 13:45

2 Answers2

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Hint: Apply Banach's fixed point theorem to $\varphi(x) = \cos(\cos(x))$.

Klaus
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  • Did not understand , Can you explain me. – DXT Feb 26 '19 at 13:52
  • @DXT What exactly did you not understand? – Klaus Feb 26 '19 at 13:53
  • I mean Branch Fixed point Theorem – DXT Feb 26 '19 at 13:57
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    @DXT If you were given this exercise, I am sure you had Banach's fixed point theorem in class. You can read it up here for example: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Banach_fixed-point_theorem ($T$ is $\varphi$ and $X$ is any sufficiently large interval here) – Klaus Feb 26 '19 at 14:00
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Hints:

  • $\cos: [0,1] \rightarrow [0,1]$
  • $|\cos'(x)| = |\sin x| \leq \sin 1 < \frac{9}{10}\Rightarrow \cos$ is contractive on $[0,1]$
  • $\Rightarrow$ $a_{n+1} = \cos a_n$ converges to the only fixpoint in $[0,1]$.

Now, reason why irrespective of the starting value $a$ the sequence $a_n$ will have to fall into $[0,1]$ "earlier or later".