0

My textbook Introduction to Set Theory 3rd by Hrbacek and Jech introduces the below theorem as well as its proof:

enter image description here

enter image description here

In the proof, there is a statement which I highlight in red color:

If $\langle a_n \mid n \in \Bbb N \rangle$ is a sequence in $D$, then $\langle a_n \mid n \in \Bbb N \rangle \in C_\alpha$ for some $\alpha < \omega_1$

I would like to ask two questions regarding this statement:

  1. Is it correct that "$\langle a_n \mid n \in \Bbb N \rangle$ is a sequence in $D$" means $\forall n \in \Bbb N:a_n \in D$?

  2. I think $\langle a_n \mid n \in \Bbb N \rangle \in C_\alpha$ is a typo. Instead, it should be $\forall n \in \Bbb N:a_n \in C_\alpha$. Please confirm if my understanding is correct!

Thank you for your help!

Akira
  • 17,367

1 Answers1

1

Your interpretations are correct. However, I'm not sure I'd call this a typo: notation like "$(a_i)_{i\in I}\in X$" (and language like "a sequence in $X$") is a very common abuse of notation for "$\forall i\in I(a_i\in X)$." So I think Jech wrote what he wanted to, although it is slightly incorrect.

Noah Schweber
  • 245,398