I was studying the derivations for the volume and surface area of a sphere .
One derivation , for the volume of the sphere is the disk-method .
A circle of radius $r$ is considered , centred at origin . The equation of the circle is $x^2+y^2=r^2$ .
This implies that $y^2=r^2-x^2$ .
To find the volume of the sphere , $\int _{-r} ^r \pi y^2 \cdot dy $ = $ \int _{-r} ^r \pi (r^2-x^2) \cdot dx $ is calculated . This yields $ \frac{4}{3} \pi r^3 $ , the correct answer .
I wondered if a similar method could be used to calculate the surface area of the sphere . So I calculated $\int ^r _{-r} 2 \pi y \cdot dy $ = $\int ^r _{-r} 2 \pi \sqrt{r^2-x^2} \cdot dx $ . Theoretically , to me , this meant summing up the circumferences , which must yield the surface area .
However , the definite integral evaluates to $\pi^2 r^2 $ , which is not the correct answer. I would like to know how my approach is wrong , and if at all the area can be calculated by summing up the circumferences (without the use of $\theta$ please ) .
Note:- I am aware of other proofs for the surface area , and am not looking for them :) .