Prove $(C_X,||.||)$ ,where $||.||$ is the maximum norm and X is compact, is complete.
The following proof was given. It is the one I am striving to understand:
Let $(f_n)$ be a Cauchy sequence: $\forall\epsilon>0\exists N\in\mathbb{N}:n,m\geqslant N\implies ||f_m-f_n||<\epsilon$
$\forall t\in X$
$0\leqslant |f_n(t)-f_m(t)|\leqslant \max_{x\in X}|f_n(x)-f_m(x)|\to 0$ as $m,n\to\infty$
$\forall t\in X\:, (f_n(t))_{n\in\mathbb{N}}$ is a Cauchy sequence in $\mathbb{R}$.
Then $(f_n)_n\to f$ uniformly then $f$ is continuous.
This is how the proof was handed to me. I think I can fill the gaps but I would need someone to back me on that.
So first the author considers a Cauchy sequence and assumes it converges in $C(X)$ Then it arrives to the following inequality: $0\leqslant |f_n(t)-f_m(t)|\leqslant \max_{x\in X}|f_n(x)-f_m(x)|\to 0$ as $m,n\to\infty$ since the it assumed $\max_{x\in X}|f_n(x)-f_m(x)|\to 0$ then $|f_n(t)-f_m(t)|\to 0$ So the convergence in $C(X)$ verifies that the same Cauchy sequence converges in $\mathbb{R}$ that is by assumption complete with the usual topology. Since $X$ is compact then $f_n$ converges uniformly in $\mathbb{R}$ and it converges to a continuous function. Therefore it converges in $C(X)$ proving the latter is complete.
Question:
Is this the reasoning behind the proof?
Thanks in advance!