Say $X \in \mathbb{R}^{m\times m}$,
Is it possible to have a constraint on $X$, such that all the eigenvalues has negative or zero real part?
What I conjecture
The following $X$ has only negative or zero real part:
$X = \frac{A - A^\top}{2} - \textrm{diag}(\gamma_1^2,\ldots,\gamma_m^2)$
for $A$ and $\gamma_i$ defined on the $\mathbb{R}$.