I’m trying to use the Euler Lagrange equations to derive the geodesic equations. I’ve assumed a lagrangian:
$$ L = {1\over 2} g_{ij}\dot x^i \dot x^j $$
So one of the terms of the equation requires:
$${\partial L\over \partial x^k} = {1\over 2} {\partial\over \partial x^k}\left( g_{ij}\dot x^i \dot x^j \right) $$
Some references I’ve seen are saying that this is equal to:
$$ {\partial L \over \partial x^k} = {1\over 2}{\partial g_{ij}\over \partial x^k}\dot x^i \dot x^j $$
So I thought we would need to use the product rule on these terms, but it seems that:
$$ {\partial \dot x^i \over \partial x^j } = 0 $$
Can anybody explain why this should be true, what am I missing? Thanks in advanced.