A theorem in Algebra by Hungerford says:
Let $R$ be a commutative ring with identity and $f\in R[x]$. Then $c \in R$ is a root of $f$ iff $x-c$ divides $f$.
Proof: $f(x) = q(x)(x-c)+f(c)$ by Remainder Theorem. If $x-c$ divides $f$, $f(x) = h(x)(x-c) = f(x) = q(x)(x-c) + f(c)$ with $h \in R[x]$, whence $(h(x) - q(x))(x-c) = f(x)$. Since $R$ is commutative, $f(c) = (h(c) - q(c))(c - c) = 0$($R[x]$ is a universal objective in a specific category). Therefore $c$ is a root.
If I go this way:
Since $x-c$ divides $f$, we have $f(x) = h(x)(x-c)$. Let $h(x) = \sum_\limits{i=0}^{n-1}a_ix^i$, then $f(x) = a_{n-1}x^n + \sum_\limits{i=1}^{n-1}(a_{i-1} - a_ic)x^i - a_0c$. Therefore $f(c) = a_{n-1}c^n + \sum_\limits{i=1}^{n-1} (a_{i-1}c^i - a_ic^{i+1}) + a_0c= 0$ and $c$ is a root.
No commutativity is assumed in my proof but Algebra emphasizes the commutativity(with a sentence "Commutativity is not required for the converse.".
Am I wrong or Hungerford is somehow misleading?