I'm trying to proof the following statement:
Let $a,b,c,d \in\mathbb{Z}$ and $m,n \in \mathbb{N}$.
If $ad-bc = 1$, then $gcd(m,n) = gcd(a\cdot m+b\cdot n,c\cdot m+d\cdot n)$.
So first of all I defined the gcd of $m$ and $n$ as $x$:
$x := gcd(m,n)$.
- $m = x\cdot k$
- $n = x\cdot l$
- $gcd(m,n) = gcd( a\cdot x\cdot k+b\cdot x\cdot l , c\cdot x\cdot k+d\cdot x\cdot l )$
- $gcd(m,n) = gcd( x(a\cdot k+b\cdot l) , x(c\cdot k+d\cdot l) )$
But from there on I don't know how to proceed. I guess I have to somehow use the $ad-bc=1$ equation but I don't know how.
I also tried to use the Lemma of Bezout but that didn't work either.
Do you guys know how to continue the proof?