I am trying to solve a problem. Proof that $300^{3000} \equiv 1 \bmod 1001$ So after a bit of puzzeling I found that $1001 = 7*11*13$ and I have prooved that:
- $300^{3000} \equiv 1 \;(\bmod 7\;)$
- $300^{3000} \equiv 1 \;(\bmod 11\;)$
- $300^{3000} \equiv 1 \;(\bmod 13\;)$
Now I wish to conclude that therefore $300^{3000} \equiv 1 \bmod 1001$
But that hinges on the assumption that I can multiply residue classes somehow like:
$[1]_7 * [1]_{11} * [1]_{13} = [1]_{1001}$ or more general maybe: $[a]_p * [b]_q * [c]_{13} = [abc]_{pqr}$
Now we have some things that may help such as the factors $p,r,r$ being (co)prime in this case... but exaclty based on what can we draw such a conclusion ?
I was thiking of that somehow we can use Bezout, which guarantees that if $gcd(p,q)=1 => (\exists x,y \in \mathbb{Z})\;(px+qy=1)$
but after scribbling some papers full of almosts...I want to ask you guys for some direction. Thanks!